CTO EXAM FOR AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL

85 cards

******


 
  
Created Aug 20, 2012
by
josh936golf

 

 
Table View
 
Download
 
Print

Flashcard Set Preview

  Side A   Side B
1
Controllers who encounter situations that are not covered in the JO 7.110.65 are expected to...
 
Use their best judgement
2
Procedural letters of agreement require the concurence of...
 
more than one facility
3
The word "shall" means the procedure is...
 
mandatory
4
The word that means the procedure is recomended is...
 
Should
5
When time is used in the context of a clock reading, hours and minutes are expressed in..
 
coordinating the universal time UTC
6
When reading the time, the change to the next minute is made at the minute plus... seconds
 
30
7
When determining priority of duty the controller should excersize..
 
good judgment
8
the time check is given to the nearest...
 
quarter minute 15 seconds
9
Give first priority to issuing saftey alerts and...
 
separating aircraft
10
The use of non radar separation is prefered over radar separation when ...... will begin
 
operational advantage
11
A safety alert is issued when a controller recognizes a situation of unsafe aircraft proximity...
 
other aircraft
12
when workload, communication, and equipement permitted, .... procedures are preferred
 
Automation
13
The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is separating aircraft and ....
 
issuing safety alerts
14
Identify a primary radar beacon target by observing target making a turn of ... degrees or...
 
30
15
Local controllers may use certified tower radar displays to determine an aircrafts exact location,...
 
Identification
16
Fixed wing special VFR flights may be approved only if arriving or departing IFR aircraft are...
 
Delayed
17
When prompt compliance is used to avoid the development of an imminent situation use the word...
 
Expadite
18
When expeditious compliance is required to employ an immenent situation use the word...
 
immediately
19
Provide air traffic control service to air craft on a.... basis as circumstances permit
 
First come first serve
20
Provide special handling as required, to expadite.... flights
 
Flight check
21
Respond to another controllers operational request by restating the incomplete or abreviated...
 
Approved
22
ATC service is provided based only upon observed or ... traffic
 
Known
23
Pilots wishes to exceed prescribed speed limit in class C or D airspace must..
 
Receive ATC authorization
24
To meet currency requirements, ATC operators must observe for at least... of the preceeding...
 
3
25
Applicants for a facility rating at any ATC tower must have satisfactorily served, without...
 
6 months
26
The minimum separation for an aircraft departing behind a heavy jet departure on parallel runways...
 
2
27
The minimum age requirement to be eligible for a CTO certification is ..... years
 
 18
28
When distances can be determined by suitable landmarks, the separtation minimum between CAT...
 
4500
29
Do not autorize an aircraft to taxi into position and hold at an intersection between sunset...
 
Not visible from tower
30
During daylight hours when distances can be determined by suitable landmarks, an arriving CAT...
 
3000
31
Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisory to aircraft landing behind a departing/ arrival......
 
2500
32
unless requested by the pilot, do not issue a downwind takeoff to helicopters if the tailwind...
 
5
33
During taxi and ground movements, larger and heavier helicopters show a significant increase...
 
Downwash Turbulence
34
Sequenced flashing lights shall be operated when the visibility is less than .... miles and...
 
3
35
Except where a runway use program is in effect, use the calm wind runway when the wind is less...
 
5
36
specialists being relieved and the relieving specialist shall share equal responsibility for...
 
accuracy
37
to achieve proper spacing between helicopters, .... may be more practical than course changes
 
Speed adjustment
38
Simultaneous same direction aircraft operations on parrallel runways are authorized only when...
 
Visual
39
Departing IFR civil aircraft should be instructed to contact departure control after takeoff...
 
1/2
40
The departure control frequence may be omited from a departure clearance if the aircraft is...
 
the departure procedure
41
Wake turbulence separation minima should continue to touchdown for all aircraft not making...
 
Maintaining visual separation
42
issue wake turbulence, cautionary advisories to IFR aircraft that accept a visual approach...
 
Visual
43
The certificate issued by the FAA that authorizes the holder to act as an ATC tower operator...
 
CTO
44
An endorsement that an applicant has to meet the requirements to control ATC at a facility...
 
Facility rating
45
Aircraft A, CAT II, is on final approach. Aircraft B, CAT III, is departing on the same runway....
 
PICTURE 6000
46
In order to conduct Land and Hold Short Operations on intersecting runways, both runways must...
 
Good
47
Aircraft A is departing Runway 10.  Aircraft B is on final approach to Runway 16. ...
 
Intersection  (PICTURE)
48
The term "high Key" relates to a ... approach
 
simulated flame-out
49
The maximum allowable airspeed for an aircraft below 10,000 feet is .... kts
 
250
50
Position lights on aircraft must be lighted between
 
sunset and sunrise
51
A flashing green light signal to an aircraft on the ground means the aircraft is cleared to...
 
taxi
52
On an overhead approach, the initial approach is .... nautical miles in length
 
3 to 5
53
A pilot encountering an urgency situation should broadcast  "...." 3 times
 
PAN-PAN
54
What procedure permits one controller to transfer radar identification of an aircraft to another...
 
Handoff
55
What phraseology term is used to inform the controller initiating a hand-off that the aircraft...
 
radar contact
56
Special VFR aircraft are NOT assigned fixed altitudes because of the .... requirement
 
clearance from clouds
57
Special VFR minima are prescribed in Federal Aviation Regulations, part....
 
91
58
Gate hold procedures shall be implemented whenever departure delays exceed.... minutes
 
15
59
If the reported ceiling/sky condition is above 5000 feet and visibility is more than... miles,...
 
5
60
when runway braking action reports of "FAIR", "POOR", and "NIL" are received, what statement...
 
Braking action advisories are in effect
61
Between sunrise and sunset, ceiling or visibility below basic VFR minima is indicated by turning...
 
rotating beacon
62
Reportable values are .... feet or less for Runway Visual Range (RVR) and 1 1/2 miles or less...
 
6000
63
The physical dimensions of class C airspace will normally be a .... NM radius capped at 4000...
 
5
64
Class c airspace shall extend down to .... feet above the surface, except that an inner core...
 
1200
65
when operating Special VFR in Class B, C, D or E airspace, all aircraft except.... are required...
 
helicopters
66
Intersection departures may be initiated or authorized by a controller if they are
 
requested by the pilot
67
The size and shape of a TRSA/Class B airspace will vary depending upon....
 
operational requirements
68
Minimum vertical separation between VFR aircraft and IFR aircraft within class C airspace is...
 
500
69
The reduced runway separation minimum between a Category III departure followed by a category...
 
6000
70
the order listing of items to be covered during a position relief breifing is called the ....
 
checklist
71
After an aircraft has been issued a clearance to taxi into position to hold on a runway, what...
 
hold in position
72
Aircraft operating at or above 18,000 feet MSL shall set their altimeter to
 
29.92
73
Aircraft approaching to land should circle the airport to the....
 
left
74
Except over mountainous areas, the minimum IFR altitude is... feet above the highest obstacle...
 
1000
75
An appropriate VFR altitude for an aircraft on a magnetic course of 200 degrees is .... feet
 
6500
76
FAA light inspection aircraft are identified by the call sign
 
Flight check
77
When appropriate procedural requirements are met, separation between aircraft may be reduced...
 
2 1/2
78
A designated Short takeoff and landing runway may be assigned only when requested by the pilot...
 
Letter of agreement with the aircraft operator
79
Which terminal controller is responsible for sequencing IFR arriving aircraft
 
Approach Control
80
which controller is normally responsible for aircraft and vehicular movement around the airport
 
ground Control
81
NO person may fly in formation if the aircraft is carrying
 
hazardous material
82
Aircraft in distress has the right of way over
 
all other aircraft
83
In converging situations involving aircraft of different categories, the right of way over...
 
balloons
84
within Class B airspace, the maximum airspeed of  turbine powered aircraft is ... knots
 
200
85
the first item stated during initial call up to an aircraft is the
 
aircraft identification


Upgrade and get a lot more done!
Upgrade    Cancel