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3D152 CDC Volume 3


CDC EOC Questions
  
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One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to
a. line noise.
b. weather effects.
c. frequency distortion.
d. electromagnetic interference.
 
weather effects.
What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?
a. Atmospheric pressure.
b. Propagation medium.
c. Temperature.
d. Moisture.
 
Propagation medium.
The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is
a. frequency.
b. power output.
c. bandwidth of the transmission medium.
d. distance between equipment and transmitter.
 
frequency.
How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?
a. 2,230.
b. 2,320.
c. 22,300.
d. 23,200.
 
22,300.
Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?
a. Milstar Communication System.
b. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).
c. Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM).
d. Ground Mobile Forces Satellite Communications (GMFSC).
 
Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).
To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be
a. phase shifted.
b. transmitted.
c. modulated.
d. encoded.
 
modulated.
What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant
end?
a. Lightwave.
b. Microwave.
c. Soundwave.
d. Groundwave.
 
Groundwave.
Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?
a. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.
b. Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper.
c. Sensitive to atmospheric interference.
d. Strictly line-of-sight (LOS) transmission.
 
Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper.
Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit
a. a relatively wide range of frequencies.
b. only high frequency information.
c. a relatively wide range of amplitudes.
d. only high amplitude information.
 
a relatively wide range of frequencies.
Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?
a. Telephone lines.
b. Television cable lines.
c. Satellite systems.
d. laser light.
 
laser light.
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect
switches together is the
a. basic rate interface (BRI).
b. primary rate interface (PRI).
c. trunk rate interface (TRI).
d. switch rate interface (SRI).
 
primary rate interface (PRI).
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated
Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?
a. 2, 1.
b. 30, 2.
c. 1, 24.
d. 23, 1.
 
23, 1.
Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?
a. Telephone lines.
b. Television cable lines.
c. Satellite systems.
d. laser light.
 
laser light
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect
switches together is the
a. basic rate interface (BRI).
b. primary rate interface (PRI).
c. trunk rate interface (TRI).
d. switch rate interface (SRI)
 
primary rate interface (PRI).
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated
Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?
a. 2, 1.
b. 30, 2.
c. 1, 24.
d. 23, 1.
 
23, 1.
What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange
system?
a. Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.
b. The invention of the multi-line telephone.
c. Military communication requirements.
d. Radio communication requirements.
 
Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.
When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
a. is broadcast over multiple paths between switches.
b. is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts.
c. has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.
d. requires a dedicated switch to make the connection.
 
has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.
The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,
a. circumvention, and confidentiality.
b. circumvention, and disclosure.
c. confidentiality, and integrity.
d. disclosure, and integrity.
 
confidentiality, and integrity.
What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?
a. Subversion.
b. Unauthorized monitoring.
c. Inexperienced switch technicians.
d. Inadequate maintenance practices.
 
Subversion.
What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?
a. A medium scale switch that handles traffic for a small city.
b. A very small scale switch that is also known as a key system.
c. A large scale switch that handles the traffic for a metropolitan area.
d. A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
 
A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System
Controller have?
a. 32.
b. 12.
c. 3.
d. 1.
 
3.
Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air
Force bases to provide base telephone services?
a. DMS–100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.
b. DMS–100/200 and MSL–100.
c. DMS–100/200 and DMS–200.
d. DMS–200 and MSL–100
 
DMS–100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.
What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system–100 (DMS–100)
supports?
a. 10,000.
b. 30,000.
c. 100,000.
d. 300,000.
 
100,000.
Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
a. Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS).
b. CM and system load module (SLM).
c. Central processing unit (CPU) and control monitor unit (CMU).
d. CPU, digital signal (DS), and peripheral module (PM).
 
CM and system load module (SLM).
What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?
a. DS–1.
b. DS–30.
c. DS–30A.
d. DS–512.
 
DS–512.
Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and
trunk subscribers?
a. Central control.
b. input/output (I/O).
c. peripheral module (PM).
d. peripheral subsystem (PS).
 
peripheral module (PM).
What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?
a. Printers, visual display unit (VDU), and tape drives.
b. A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers.
c. A maintenance and administration position (MAP).
d. The central processing unit (CPU) and keyboard.
 
Printers, visual display unit (VDU), and tape drives.
Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a
a. cable manhole.
b. telecommunications cable closet.
c. building cable raceway.
d. cable vault.
 
cable vault.
The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame
protectors before removing and replacing them is to
a. verify the circuit is not in use.
b. prevent interruptions to critical circuits.
c. ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
d. avoid activating alarm circuits.
 
ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A
cross-point card matrix?
a. Vertical bus.
b. Horizontal bus.
c. Clock/message card.
d. Enhanced network (ENET) processor
 
Vertical bus.
Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to any
available
a. computing mode channel.
b. peripheral channel.
c. H-bus channel.
d. output channel.
 
output channel
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility is responsible for creating and
maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?
a. Journal file.
b. Table control.
c. Dump/restore.
d. Pending order file
 
Table control.
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for storing
data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?
a. Journal file.
b. Table control.
c. Dump/restore.
d. Pending order file.
 
Dump/restore.
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for
preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if
the system should fail?
a. Journal file.
b. Table control.
c. Dump/restore.
d. Pending order file.
 
Journal file.
What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting
(TAG) feature?
a. Administration and maintenance interface.
b. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
c. Meridian mail user interface.
d. Message service interface.
 
Meridian mail user interface.
What voice mail interface allows a user’s mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and
up to eight submailboxes?
a. Administration and maintenance interface.
b. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
c. Meridian mail user interface.
d. Message service interface.
 
Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
Why are the R–Y and B–Y signals shifted 33° counterclockwise?
a. To align R–Y and B–Y with their respective primary colors.
b. To align R–Y and B–Y with their respective complementary colors.
c. R–Y was shifted to minimum and B–Y was shifted to maximum color acuity, respectively for
human vision.
d. R–Y was shifted to maximum and B–Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for
human vision.
 
R–Y was shifted to maximum and B–Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for
human vision.
The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the
a. encoder.
b. decoder.
c. multiplexer.
d. demultiplexer.
 
encoder.
What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee
(ATSC) system?
a. 4-quardraplex sideband (4-QSB).
b. 8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).
c. 4-vestigial modulation (4-VM).
d. 8-quadrature modulation (8-QM).
 
8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).
What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?
a. Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)–1.
b. Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)–2.
c. Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)–3.
d. Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)–4.
 
Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)–2.
How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with
1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?
a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 8.
 
8.
How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?
a. Series of magnetic patterns.
b. Series of edited electrical patterns.
c. Transferred current indents.
d. Transferred voltage indents.
 
Series of magnetic patterns.
You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an
a. magnet.
b. conductor.
c. electromagnet.
d. charged capacitor.
 
electromagnet.
What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape
across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?
a. Fast Forward.
b. Playback.
c. Erasure.
d. Rewind.
 
Playback.
An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for
a. minimizing video loss.
b. carrying a video waveform.
c. minimized signal dropout.
d. transmitting an analog waveform.
 
carrying a video waveform.
What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?
a. Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.
b. Material can be regenerated when the signal is converted to a different digital domain.
c. The material recorded can be cloned with noticeable loss of quality.
d. The recorded material can be converted to a different digital domain.
 
Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.
Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19mm
wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?
a. D1.
b. D2.
c. D3.
d. D4.
 
D1.
What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a
video tape recorder (VTR)?
a. Tape meter.
b. Tracker.
c. Counter.
d. Display clock.
 
Counter.
What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full
screen background?
a. Effects keyer.
b. Effects preview multiplier.
c. Effects program multiplier.
d. Transition pattern generator.
 
Effects keyer.
The GVG–110 video switcher effects key fills with
a. linear signal and chroma signal from the effects keyer.
b. key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
c. key bus keying signal or an internally-generated color matte signal.
d. luminance signal and chroma key signal from the effects keyer.
 
key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
The purpose of the GVG–110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to
allow
a. remote control of switcher transitions.
b. remote programming of all switcher functions.
c. parallel interface with the switcher effects memory.
d. serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.
 
remote control of switcher transitions.
The GVG–110 video switcher serial interface allows
a. remote control of switcher transitions.
b. remote programming of all switcher functions.
c. serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.
d. remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator.
 
remote programming of all switcher functions.
What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the
video distribution amplifier?
a. 60 Hz and 15,750 Hz.
b. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.
c. 15,750 Hz and 4.5 MHz.
d. 15,750 Hz and 5.5 MHz.
 
60 Hz and 5.5 MHz
What is the beginning of a cable system called?
a. Head-end.
b. Trunk line.
c. Receiver.
d. Decoder.
 
Head-end.
What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?
a. Multiplexer.
b. Demodulator.
c. Modulator.
d. Decoder.
 
Multiplexer.
What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?
a. Head-end.
b. Trunk line.
c. Receiver.
d. Coax RJ–6.
 
Trunk line.
What must a line of detection detect?
a. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.
b. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping outside the line of detection.
c. Potential for intruder to bypass the system.
d. Possibility of equipment failures.
 
Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.
What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
a. Provide security forces (SF) personnel a safe place to work.
b. Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone.
c. Facilitate the detection of intruders.
d. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
 
To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to
a. provide security forces personnel a safe working environment during night time hours.
b. identify wildlife inside the perimeter detection zone.
c. facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.
d. present a means of deterring unauthorized entry
 
facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.
The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a
a. gatehouse, vehicle parking area, and personnel entry gate.
b. gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.
c. personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, backup generator, and gatehouse.
d. location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon.
 
gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.
What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to
enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building?
a. AN/GSS–42.
b. AN/GSS–41.
c. AN/GSS–29.
d. AN/GSS–39.
 
AN/GSS–39.
What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?
a. Small annunciator system (SMAS).
b. Standard annunciator system (STAS).
c. Small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS).
d. Security monitoring and reporting terminal (SMART).
 
Small annunciator system (SMAS).
What does the AN/GSS–39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the
control panel?
a. End-of-line (EOL) resistor.
b. Line termination unit.
c. EOL module.
d. Tamper interface unit.
 
EOL module.
Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?
a. Ultrasonic.
b. Microwave.
c. Passive infrared.
d. Dual-phenomenology.
 
Passive infrared.
What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS–39
system before a power loss is reported?
a. 1.5 to 10 seconds.
b. 1.5 to 15 seconds.
c. 3 to 10 seconds.
d. 5 to 15 seconds.
 
1.5 to 15 seconds.
Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI–76 microwave sensor?
a. 15–50 feet.
b. 15–75 feet.
c. 25–75 feet.
d. 30–90 feet.
 
15–75 feet.
What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an
alarm is detected?
a. Alternate current (AC).
b. Direct current (DC).
c. Digital.
d. Analog.
 
Analog.
A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?
a. 100.
b. 150.
c. 200.
d. 300.
 
300.
Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?
a. Alarm duration.
b. Number of cuts.
c. Cable sensitivity.
d. Sector reporting priority.
 
Sector reporting priority.
What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?
a. 150 feet.
b. 200 feet.
c. 328 feet.
d. 425 feet.
 
328 feet.
What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?
a. 150 feet.
b. 200 feet.
c. 328 feet.
d. 425 feet.
 
200 feet
What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is
removed?
a. None.
b. Tamper.
c. Intruder.
d. Equipment fault.
 
Tamper.
In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)
remain operational?
a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 8.
d. 10.
 
4.
How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection
sensor?
a. 0.5.
b. 1.
c. 2.
d. 4.
 
4.
At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor
(IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?
a. 100 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver.
b. 150 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver.
c. 100 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.
d. 150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.
 
150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.
What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the “A” sensor post of the
infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)?
a. 100 hertz (Hz).
b. 800 Hz.
c. 1000 Hz.
d. 1200 Hz.
 
1200 Hz.
What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?
a. Beam break.
b. Signal fade margin.
c. Multipath deflection.
d. Dual-phenomena reflection
 
Beam break.
When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic
gain control (AGC) using a multimeter?
a. Lowest possible.
b. Highest possible.
c. Equal to the phase lock loop (PLL).
d. Midpoint.
 
Lowest possible.
How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?
a. The processor communicates with the other cards in the module via the T-Bus.
b. The T-Bus connects the Promina to other modules in the TDC suite.
c. The front card communicates with the rear card through the T-Bus.
d. The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus.
 
The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus
Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by
a. using two trunk cards in one Promina.
b. configuring a bundle consisting of 24 DS0s.
c. not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call.
d. consuming bandwidth equally in both directions while preserving one-way communication.
 
not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call.
Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theater
deployable communications/integrated communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network?
a. Crypto Interface.
b. Basic Access.
c. Red Data.
d. Crypto.
 
Crypto.
If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks,
we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to
a. synchronization.
b. buffer overflow.
c. timing slips.
d. data speeds.
 
timing slips.
What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC–100 can
handle?
a. 12.
b. 16.
c. 24.
d. 32.
 
16.
How many card slots does the FCC–100 have, and how many of them are available for user
configuration?
a. 16, 8.
b. 12, 10.
c. 13, 8.
d. 13, 10.
 
13, 8.
For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC),
the Crypto Interface Module’s router normally acts as the
a. management console.
b. internal firewall.
c. external router.
d. internal router.
 
external router.
For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto
interface module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which piece
of equipment is necessary?
a. KIV 19.
b. KIV–7HS/B.
c. CV–2048/8448-D.
d. Cisco 3745 router.
 
CV–2048/8448-D.
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allows
for stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of.
a. 4.
b. 6.
c. 8.
d. 2.
 
2.
The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibility
between the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC)
equipment?
a. Transmission Control.
b. User Datagram.
c. File Transfer.
d. Internet.
 
Transmission Control.
What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?
a. Stand alone.
b. Client only.
c. Gateway only.
d. Gateway/client.
 
Gateway/client.
The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?
a. Ku, Ka.
b. C, X.
c. Ku, X.
d. Ka, C.
 
Ku, Ka.
What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified
information?
a. Military.
b. Type one.
c. Managed.
d. Classified.
 
Type one.
Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television settop
converter box?
a. Managed Ethernet switch (MES).
b. Display and keyboard.
c. Video converter.
d. RBM server
 
Video converter.
A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from
a. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
b. Defense Informaiton Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).
c. the systems control facility (SCF).
d. the end user.
 
Defense Informaiton Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).
Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when
test and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express approval
of
a. the user
b. Circuit control office (CCO).
c. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
d. the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.
 
the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.
Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications
Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?
a. 72.
b. 48.
c. 24.
d. 12.
 
72.
What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the
Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
a. In-effect.
b. Exception.
c. Acceptance.
d. Delayed service.
 
Exception.
Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except
a. outage times.
b. reason for outage.
c. number of outages.
d. preempted outages.
 
preempted outages.
Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) on
what basis?
a. Daily.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Annual.
 
Monthly.
If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?
a. Quality control (QC).
b. Test and acceptance (T&A).
c. Operations and maintenance (O&M).
d. Operational acceptance.
 
Quality control (QC).
The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the
a. responsible operations and maintenance (O&M) agency.
b. “from” (sending) station.
c. “to” (receiving) station.
d. type of trunk.
 
“from” (sending) station.
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information
needed to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)?
a. 310–55–1 only.
b. 300–175–9 only.
c. 310–70–1 and 310–55–1.
d. 310–70–1 and 300–175–9.
 
310–70–1 and 310–55–1.
Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?
a. Circuit control office (CCO).
b. National Communications System (NCS).
c. Systems control facility (SCF).
d. Defense Communications System (DCS).
 
National Communications System (NCS).
What are the two parts/priorities to the Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP)?
a. provisioning and restoration.
b. provisioning and recovery.
c. procurement and restoration.
d. procurement and recovery priority.
 
provisioning and restoration.

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