3D152 CDC Volume 3

103 cards

CDC EOC Questions


 
  
Created Nov 3, 2011
by
perry_ratcliff

 

 
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  Side A   Side B
1
One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to
a....
 
weather effects.
2
What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?
a. Atmospheric pressure.
b....
 
Propagation medium.
3
The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is
a. frequency.
b....
 
frequency.
4
How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?
a. 2,230.
b. 2,320.
c....
 
22,300.
5
Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?
a. Milstar Communication...
 
Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).
6
To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be
a. phase shifted.
b....
 
modulated.
7
What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant
end?
a....
 
Groundwave.
8
Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?
a. No need for careful alignment...
 
Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper.
9
Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit
a. a relatively wide range of frequencies.
b....
 
a relatively wide range of frequencies.
10
Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?
a. Telephone lines.
b....
 
laser light.
11
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect
switches...
 
primary rate interface (PRI).
12
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated
Services...
 
23, 1.
13
Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?
a. Telephone lines.
b....
 
laser light
14
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect
switches...
 
primary rate interface (PRI).
15
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated
Services...
 
23, 1.
16
What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange
system?
a....
 
Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.
17
When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
a. is broadcast over multiple paths...
 
has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.
18
The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,
a. circumvention,...
 
confidentiality, and integrity.
19
What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?
a. Subversion.
b....
 
Subversion.
20
What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?
a. A medium...
 
A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
21
How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System
Controller...
 
3.
22
Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air
Force...
 
DMS–100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.
23
What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system–100 (DMS–100)
supports?
a....
 
100,000.
24
Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
a. Computing...
 
CM and system load module (SLM).
25
What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?
a....
 
DS–512.
26
Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and
trunk...
 
peripheral module (PM).
27
What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?
a. Printers,...
 
Printers, visual display unit (VDU), and tape drives.
28
Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a
a. cable manhole.
b....
 
cable vault.
29
The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame
protectors...
 
ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
30
Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A
cross-point...
 
Vertical bus.
31
Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to any
available
a....
 
output channel
32
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility is responsible for creating and
maintaining...
 
Table control.
33
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for storing
data...
 
Dump/restore.
34
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for
preserving...
 
Journal file.
35
What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting
(TAG)...
 
Meridian mail user interface.
36
What voice mail interface allows a user’s mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and
up...
 
Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
37
Why are the R–Y and B–Y signals shifted 33° counterclockwise?
a. To align R–Y and...
 
R–Y was shifted to maximum and B–Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for
human...
38
The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the
a. encoder.
b. decoder.
c....
 
encoder.
39
What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee
(ATSC) system?
a....
 
8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).
40
What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?
a....
 
Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)–2.
41
How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with
1920x1088...
 
8.
42
How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?
a. Series of magnetic patterns.
b....
 
Series of magnetic patterns.
43
You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an
a. magnet.
b. conductor.
c....
 
electromagnet.
44
What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape
across...
 
Playback.
45
An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for
a....
 
carrying a video waveform.
46
What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?
a. Material can be...
 
Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.
47
Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19mm
wide...
 
D1.
48
What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a
video...
 
Counter.
49
What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full
screen...
 
Effects keyer.
50
The GVG–110 video switcher effects key fills with
a. linear signal and chroma signal from...
 
key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
51
The purpose of the GVG–110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to
allow
a....
 
remote control of switcher transitions.
52
The GVG–110 video switcher serial interface allows
a. remote control of switcher transitions.
b....
 
remote programming of all switcher functions.
53
What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the
video...
 
60 Hz and 5.5 MHz
54
What is the beginning of a cable system called?
a. Head-end.
b. Trunk line.
c. Receiver.
d....
 
Head-end.
55
What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?
a. Multiplexer.
b. Demodulator.
c....
 
Multiplexer.
56
What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?
a. Head-end.
b. Trunk line.
c....
 
Trunk line.
57
What must a line of detection detect?
a. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping...
 
Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.
58
What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
a. Provide security forces (SF) personnel...
 
To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
59
The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to
a. provide security forces personnel...
 
facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.
60
The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a
a. gatehouse, vehicle...
 
gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.
61
What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting...
 
AN/GSS–39.
62
What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?
a. Small annunciator system...
 
Small annunciator system (SMAS).
63
What does the AN/GSS–39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the
control...
 
EOL module.
64
Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?
a. Ultrasonic.
b. Microwave.
c....
 
Passive infrared.
65
What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS–39
system...
 
1.5 to 15 seconds.
66
Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI–76 microwave sensor?
a. 15–50 feet.
b....
 
15–75 feet.
67
What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an
alarm...
 
Analog.
68
A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?
a. 100.
b. 150.
c. 200.
d....
 
300.
69
Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?
a. Alarm duration.
b. Number...
 
Sector reporting priority.
70
What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?
a. 150 feet.
b. 200...
 
328 feet.
71
What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?
a. 150 feet.
b. 200 feet.
c....
 
200 feet
72
What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is
removed?
a....
 
Tamper.
73
In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)
remain...
 
4.
74
How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection
sensor?
a....
 
4.
75
At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor
(IPDS)...
 
150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.
76
What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the “A” sensor post...
 
1200 Hz.
77
What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?
a. Beam break.
b....
 
Beam break.
78
When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic
gain...
 
Lowest possible.
79
How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?
a. The processor communicates...
 
The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus
80
Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by
a. using two trunk...
 
not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call.
81
Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theater
deployable...
 
Crypto.
82
If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks,
we...
 
timing slips.
83
What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC–100 can
handle?
a....
 
16.
84
How many card slots does the FCC–100 have, and how many of them are available for user
configuration?
a....
 
13, 8.
85
For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC),
the...
 
external router.
86
For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto
interface...
 
CV–2048/8448-D.
87
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allows
for...
 
2.
88
The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibility
between...
 
Transmission Control.
89
What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?
a. Stand alone.
b. Client...
 
Gateway/client.
90
The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?
a....
 
Ku, Ka.
91
What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified
information?
a....
 
Type one.
92
Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television settop
converter...
 
Video converter.
93
A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from
a. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
b....
 
Defense Informaiton Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).
94
Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when
test...
 
the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.
95
Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications
Service...
 
72.
96
What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the
Telecommunications...
 
Exception.
97
Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except
a. outage times.
b....
 
preempted outages.
98
Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) on
what...
 
Monthly.
99
If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?
a. Quality...
 
Quality control (QC).
100
The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the
a. responsible operations and maintenance...
 
“from” (sending) station.
101
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information
needed...
 
310–70–1 and 310–55–1.
102
Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?
a. Circuit control office (CCO).
b....
 
National Communications System (NCS).
103
What are the two parts/priorities to the Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP)?
a. provisioning...
 
provisioning and restoration.

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