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3D152 CDC Volume 3

CDC EOC Questions
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Side ASide B
One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible toa. line noise.b. weather effects.c. frequency distortion.d. electromagnetic interference.
weather effects.
What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?a. Atmospheric pressure.b. Propagation medium.c. Temperature.d. Moisture.
Propagation medium.
The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide isa. frequency.b. power output.c. bandwidth of the transmission medium.d. distance between equipment and transmitter.
frequency.
How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?a. 2,230.b. 2,320.c. 22,300.d. 23,200.
22,300.
Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?a. Milstar Communication System.b. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).c. Air Force Satellite Communications...
Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).
To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to bea. phase shifted.b. transmitted.c. modulated.d. encoded.
modulated.
What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distantend?a. Lightwave.b. Microwave.c. Soundwave.d. Groundwave.
Groundwave.
Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?a. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.b. Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper.c. Sensitive...
Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper.
Broadband refers to a technology that can transmita. a relatively wide range of frequencies.b. only high frequency information.c. a relatively wide range of amplitudes.d. only high...
a relatively wide range of frequencies.
Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?a. Telephone lines.b. Television cable lines.c. Satellite systems.d. laser light.
laser light.
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connectswitches together is thea. basic rate interface (BRI).b. primary rate interface (PRI).c. trunk rate...
primary rate interface (PRI).
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American IntegratedServices Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?a. 2, 1.b. 30, 2.c....
23, 1.
Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?a. Telephone lines.b. Television cable lines.c. Satellite systems.d. laser light.
laser light
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connectswitches together is thea. basic rate interface (BRI).b. primary rate interface (PRI).c. trunk rate...
primary rate interface (PRI).
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American IntegratedServices Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?a. 2, 1.b. 30, 2.c....
23, 1.
What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchangesystem?a. Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.b. The invention of the multi-line...
Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.
When a telephone network is circuit switched, each calla. is broadcast over multiple paths between switches.b. is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts.c. has a dedicated...
has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.
The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,a. circumvention, and confidentiality.b. circumvention, and disclosure.c. confidentiality, and integrity.d....
confidentiality, and integrity.
What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?a. Subversion.b. Unauthorized monitoring.c. Inexperienced switch technicians.d. Inadequate maintenance practices.
Subversion.
What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?a. A medium scale switch that handles traffic for a small city.b. A very small scale switch that is also...
A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small SystemController have?a. 32.b. 12.c. 3.d. 1.
3.
Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at AirForce bases to provide base telephone services?a. DMS–100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.b....
DMS–100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.
What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system–100 (DMS–100)supports?a. 10,000.b. 30,000.c. 100,000.d. 300,000.
100,000.
Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?a. Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS).b. CM and system load module (SLM).c. Central processing...
CM and system load module (SLM).
What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?a. DS–1.b. DS–30.c. DS–30A.d. DS–512.
DS–512.
Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line andtrunk subscribers?a. Central control.b. input/output (I/O).c. peripheral module (PM).d. peripheral...
peripheral module (PM).
What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?a. Printers, visual display unit (VDU), and tape drives.b. A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the...
Printers, visual display unit (VDU), and tape drives.
Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through aa. cable manhole.b. telecommunications cable closet.c. building cable raceway.d. cable vault.
cable vault.
The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frameprotectors before removing and replacing them is toa. verify the circuit is not in use.b. prevent...
ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35Across-point card matrix?a. Vertical bus.b. Horizontal bus.c. Clock/message card.d. Enhanced network...
Vertical bus.
Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to anyavailablea. computing mode channel.b. peripheral channel.c. H-bus channel.d. output channel.
output channel
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility is responsible for creating andmaintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?a. Journal file.b. Table control.c. Dump/restore.d....
Table control.
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for storingdata modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?a....
Dump/restore.
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities forpreserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored ifthe...
Journal file.
What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting(TAG) feature?a. Administration and maintenance interface.b. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.c....
Meridian mail user interface.
What voice mail interface allows a user’s mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox andup to eight submailboxes?a. Administration and maintenance interface.b. Voice Messaging...
Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
Why are the R–Y and B–Y signals shifted 33° counterclockwise?a. To align R–Y and B–Y with their respective primary colors.b. To align R–Y and B–Y with their respective...
R–Y was shifted to maximum and B–Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively forhuman vision.
The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to thea. encoder.b. decoder.c. multiplexer.d. demultiplexer.
encoder.
What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee(ATSC) system?a. 4-quardraplex sideband (4-QSB).b. 8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).c. 4-vestigial modulation...
8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).
What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?a. Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)–1.b. Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)–2.c. Motion...
Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)–2.
How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?a. 2.b. 4.c. 6.d. 8.
8.
How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?a. Series of magnetic patterns.b. Series of edited electrical patterns.c. Transferred current indents.d. Transferred voltage indents.
Series of magnetic patterns.
You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/ana. magnet.b. conductor.c. electromagnet.d. charged capacitor.
electromagnet.
What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotapeacross the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?a. Fast Forward.b. Playback.c....
Playback.
An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means fora. minimizing video loss.b. carrying a video waveform.c. minimized signal dropout.d. transmitting...
carrying a video waveform.
What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?a. Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.b. Material can...
Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.
Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19mmwide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?a. D1.b. D2.c. D3.d. D4.
D1.
What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on avideo tape recorder (VTR)?a. Tape meter.b. Tracker.c. Counter.d. Display clock.
Counter.
What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a fullscreen background?a. Effects keyer.b. Effects preview multiplier.c. Effects program multiplier.d....
Effects keyer.
The GVG–110 video switcher effects key fills witha. linear signal and chroma signal from the effects keyer.b. key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.c. key bus...
key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
The purpose of the GVG–110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is toallowa. remote control of switcher transitions.b. remote programming of all switcher functions.c....
remote control of switcher transitions.
The GVG–110 video switcher serial interface allowsa. remote control of switcher transitions.b. remote programming of all switcher functions.c. serial interface programming with the...
remote programming of all switcher functions.
What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in thevideo distribution amplifier?a. 60 Hz and 15,750 Hz.b. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.c. 15,750 Hz and 4.5...
60 Hz and 5.5 MHz
What is the beginning of a cable system called?a. Head-end.b. Trunk line.c. Receiver.d. Decoder.
Head-end.
What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?a. Multiplexer.b. Demodulator.c. Modulator.d. Decoder.
Multiplexer.
What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?a. Head-end.b. Trunk line.c. Receiver.d. Coax RJ–6.
Trunk line.
What must a line of detection detect?a. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.b. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping outside the...
Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.
What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?a. Provide security forces (SF) personnel a safe place to work.b. Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone.c. Facilitate the detection...
To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
The security lighting inside the restricted area is used toa. provide security forces personnel a safe working environment during night time hours.b. identify wildlife inside the perimeter...
facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.
The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes aa. gatehouse, vehicle parking area, and personnel entry gate.b. gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment,...
gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.
What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting toenter a shelter, storage igloo, or building?a. AN/GSS–42.b. AN/GSS–41.c. AN/GSS–29.d....
AN/GSS–39.
What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?a. Small annunciator system (SMAS).b. Standard annunciator system (STAS).c. Small permanent communications and display segment...
Small annunciator system (SMAS).
What does the AN/GSS–39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to thecontrol panel?a. End-of-line (EOL) resistor.b. Line termination unit.c. EOL module.d. Tamper...
EOL module.
Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?a. Ultrasonic.b. Microwave.c. Passive infrared.d. Dual-phenomenology.
Passive infrared.
What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS–39system before a power loss is reported?a. 1.5 to 10 seconds.b. 1.5 to 15 seconds.c. 3 to...
1.5 to 15 seconds.
Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI–76 microwave sensor?a. 15–50 feet.b. 15–75 feet.c. 25–75 feet.d. 30–90 feet.
15–75 feet.
What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when analarm is detected?a. Alternate current (AC).b. Direct current (DC).c. Digital.d. Analog.
Analog.
A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?a. 100.b. 150.c. 200.d. 300.
300.
Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?a. Alarm duration.b. Number of cuts.c. Cable sensitivity.d. Sector reporting priority.
Sector reporting priority.
What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?a. 150 feet.b. 200 feet.c. 328 feet.d. 425 feet.
328 feet.
What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?a. 150 feet.b. 200 feet.c. 328 feet.d. 425 feet.
200 feet
What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) isremoved?a. None.b. Tamper.c. Intruder.d. Equipment fault.
Tamper.
In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)remain operational?a. 2.b. 4.c. 8.d. 10.
4.
How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detectionsensor?a. 0.5.b. 1.c. 2.d. 4.
4.
At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor(IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?a. 100 feet; signal transmitted...
150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.
What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the “A” sensor post of theinfrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)?a. 100 hertz (Hz).b. 800 Hz.c. 1000...
1200 Hz.
What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?a. Beam break.b. Signal fade margin.c. Multipath deflection.d. Dual-phenomena reflection
Beam break.
When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automaticgain control (AGC) using a multimeter?a. Lowest possible.b. Highest possible.c. Equal to the phase...
Lowest possible.
How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?a. The processor communicates with the other cards in the module via the T-Bus.b. The T-Bus connects the Promina to other modules...
The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus
Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth bya. using two trunk cards in one Promina.b. configuring a bundle consisting of 24 DS0s.c. not utilizing the bandwidth...
not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call.
Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theaterdeployable communications/integrated communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network?a. Crypto Interface.b....
Crypto.
If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks,we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due toa. synchronization.b. buffer overflow.c. timing slips.d....
timing slips.
What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC–100 canhandle?a. 12.b. 16.c. 24.d. 32.
16.
How many card slots does the FCC–100 have, and how many of them are available for userconfiguration?a. 16, 8.b. 12, 10.c. 13, 8.d. 13, 10.
13, 8.
For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC),the Crypto Interface Module’s router normally acts as thea. management console.b. internal firewall.c....
external router.
For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the cryptointerface module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which pieceof equipment...
CV–2048/8448-D.
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allowsfor stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of.a. 4.b....
2.
The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibilitybetween the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC)equipment?a....
Transmission Control.
What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?a. Stand alone.b. Client only.c. Gateway only.d. Gateway/client.
Gateway/client.
The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?a. Ku, Ka.b. C, X.c. Ku, X.d. Ka, C.
Ku, Ka.
What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classifiedinformation?a. Military.b. Type one.c. Managed.d. Classified.
Type one.
Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television settopconverter box?a. Managed Ethernet switch (MES).b. Display and keyboard.c. Video converter.d....
Video converter.
A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent froma. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).b. Defense Informaiton Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).c. the systems control facility...
Defense Informaiton Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).
Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule whentest and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express...
the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.
Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the TelecommunicationsService Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?a. 72.b. 48.c. 24.d....
72.
What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and theTelecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for...
Exception.
Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data excepta. outage times.b. reason for outage.c. number of outages.d. preempted outages.
preempted outages.
Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) onwhat basis?a. Daily.b. Weekly.c. Monthly.d. Annual.
Monthly.
If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?a. Quality control (QC).b. Test and acceptance (T&A).c. Operations and maintenance (O&M).d. Operational...
Quality control (QC).
The first position of a trunk identifier indicates thea. responsible operations and maintenance (O&M) agency.b. “from” (sending) station.c. “to” (receiving) station.d. type...
“from” (sending) station.
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain informationneeded to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)?a. 310–55–1 only.b....
310–70–1 and 310–55–1.
Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?a. Circuit control office (CCO).b. National Communications System (NCS).c. Systems control facility (SCF).d. Defense Communications...
National Communications System (NCS).
What are the two parts/priorities to the Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP)?a. provisioning and restoration.b. provisioning and recovery.c. procurement and restoration.d. procurement...
provisioning and restoration.

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