3D152 CDC Volume 3

CDC EOC Questions
 
Created Nov 3, 2011
by
perry_ratcliff
Table View
Download
Print

Flashcard Set Preview

Side ASide B
One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible toa. line...
weather effects.
What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?a. Atmospheric pressure.b....
Propagation medium.
The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide isa. frequency.b. power...
frequency.
How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?a. 2,230.b. 2,320.c. 22,300.d....
22,300.
Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?a. Milstar Communication...
Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).
To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to bea. phase shifted.b....
modulated.
What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distantend?a....
Groundwave.
Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?a. No need for careful alignment of...
Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper.
Broadband refers to a technology that can transmita. a relatively wide range of frequencies.b....
a relatively wide range of frequencies.
Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?a. Telephone lines.b. Television...
laser light.
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connectswitches...
primary rate interface (PRI).
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American IntegratedServices...
23, 1.
Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?a. Telephone lines.b. Television...
laser light
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connectswitches...
primary rate interface (PRI).
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American IntegratedServices...
23, 1.
What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchangesystem?a....
Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.
When a telephone network is circuit switched, each calla. is broadcast over multiple paths...
has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.
The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,a. circumvention,...
confidentiality, and integrity.
What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?a. Subversion.b. Unauthorized...
Subversion.
What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?a. A medium...
A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small SystemController have?a....
3.
Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at AirForce bases...
DMS–100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.
What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system–100 (DMS–100)supports?a....
100,000.
Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?a. Computing...
CM and system load module (SLM).
What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?a. DS–1.b....
DS–512.
Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line andtrunk...
peripheral module (PM).
What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?a. Printers, visual...
Printers, visual display unit (VDU), and tape drives.
Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through aa. cable manhole.b. telecommunications...
cable vault.
The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frameprotectors...
ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35Across-point...
Vertical bus.
Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to anyavailablea....
output channel
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility is responsible for creating andmaintaining...
Table control.
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities for storingdata...
Dump/restore.
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)–100 database facility provides facilities forpreserving...
Journal file.
What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting(TAG)...
Meridian mail user interface.
What voice mail interface allows a user’s mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox andup...
Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
Why are the R–Y and B–Y signals shifted 33° counterclockwise?a. To align R–Y and B–Y...
R–Y was shifted to maximum and B–Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively forhuman...
The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to thea. encoder.b. decoder.c. multiplexer.d....
encoder.
What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee(ATSC) system?a....
8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).
What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?a. Motion...
Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)–2.
How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with1920x1088...
8.
How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?a. Series of magnetic patterns.b. Series...
Series of magnetic patterns.
You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/ana. magnet.b. conductor.c. electromagnet.d....
electromagnet.
What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotapeacross...
Playback.
An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means fora....
carrying a video waveform.
What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?a. Material can be edited...
Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.
Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19mmwide...
D1.
What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on avideo...
Counter.
What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a fullscreen...
Effects keyer.
The GVG–110 video switcher effects key fills witha. linear signal and chroma signal from...
key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
The purpose of the GVG–110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is toallowa....
remote control of switcher transitions.
The GVG–110 video switcher serial interface allowsa. remote control of switcher transitions.b....
remote programming of all switcher functions.
What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in thevideo...
60 Hz and 5.5 MHz
What is the beginning of a cable system called?a. Head-end.b. Trunk line.c. Receiver.d. Decoder.
Head-end.
What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?a. Multiplexer.b. Demodulator.c....
Multiplexer.
What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?a. Head-end.b. Trunk line.c. Receiver.d....
Trunk line.
What must a line of detection detect?a. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through...
Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.
What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?a. Provide security forces (SF) personnel a safe...
To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
The security lighting inside the restricted area is used toa. provide security forces personnel...
facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.
The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes aa. gatehouse, vehicle...
gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.
What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting...
AN/GSS–39.
What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?a. Small annunciator system (SMAS).b....
Small annunciator system (SMAS).
What does the AN/GSS–39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to thecontrol...
EOL module.
Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?a. Ultrasonic.b. Microwave.c. Passive...
Passive infrared.
What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS–39system...
1.5 to 15 seconds.
Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI–76 microwave sensor?a. 15–50 feet.b. 15–75...
15–75 feet.
What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when analarm...
Analog.
A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?a. 100.b. 150.c. 200.d. 300.
300.
Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?a. Alarm duration.b. Number of cuts.c....
Sector reporting priority.
What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?a. 150 feet.b. 200 feet.c....
328 feet.
What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?a. 150 feet.b. 200 feet.c. 328...
200 feet
What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) isremoved?a....
Tamper.
In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)remain...
4.
How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detectionsensor?a....
4.
At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor(IPDS)...
150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.
What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the “A” sensor post...
1200 Hz.
What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?a. Beam break.b. Signal...
Beam break.
When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automaticgain...
Lowest possible.
How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?a. The processor communicates with...
The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus
Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth bya. using two trunk cards...
not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call.
Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theaterdeployable...
Crypto.
If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks,we...
timing slips.
What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC–100 canhandle?a....
16.
How many card slots does the FCC–100 have, and how many of them are available for userconfiguration?a....
13, 8.
For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC),the...
external router.
For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the cryptointerface module...
CV–2048/8448-D.
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allowsfor stacks...
2.
The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibilitybetween...
Transmission Control.
What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?a. Stand alone.b. Client only.c....
Gateway/client.
The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?a....
Ku, Ka.
What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classifiedinformation?a....
Type one.
Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television settopconverter...
Video converter.
A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent froma. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).b....
Defense Informaiton Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).
Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule whentest...
the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.
Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the TelecommunicationsService Order...
72.
What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and theTelecommunications...
Exception.
Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data excepta. outage times.b. reason...
preempted outages.
Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) onwhat basis?a....
Monthly.
If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?a. Quality control...
Quality control (QC).
The first position of a trunk identifier indicates thea. responsible operations and maintenance...
“from” (sending) station.
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain informationneeded to assign...
310–70–1 and 310–55–1.
Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?a. Circuit control office (CCO).b. National...
National Communications System (NCS).
What are the two parts/priorities to the Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP)?a. provisioning...
provisioning and restoration.

Upgrade and get a lot more done!
Upgrade    Cancel