Download (CTO EXAM FOR AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL) Flashcard

Choose a format below:

TEXT Format (.txt) MS-Excel Format (.xls)

Select delimiter » Comma Semicolon Tab New Line Custom

Preview »

Side A ------ Side B
Controllers who encounter situations that are not covered in the JO 7.110.65 are expected to... ------ Use their best judgement
Procedural letters of agreement require the concurence of... ------ more than one facility
The word "shall" means the procedure is... ------ mandatory
The word that means the procedure is recomended is... ------ Should
When time is used in the context of a clock reading, hours and minutes are expressed in..  ------ coordinating the universal time UTC
When reading the time, the change to the next minute is made at the minute plus... seconds ------ 30
When determining priority of duty the controller should excersize..  ------ good judgment
the time check is given to the nearest... ------ quarter minute 15 seconds
Give first priority to issuing saftey alerts and... ------ separating aircraft
The use of non radar separation is prefered over radar separation when ...... will begin ------ operational advantage
A safety alert is issued when a controller recognizes a situation of unsafe aircraft proximity to terrain, obstacles, or ..... ------ other aircraft
when workload, communication, and equipement permitted, .... procedures are preferred ------ Automation
The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is separating aircraft and .... ------ issuing safety alerts
Identify a primary radar beacon target by observing target making a turn of ... degrees or more ------ 30 
Local controllers may use certified tower radar displays to determine an aircrafts exact location, relationship to other aircraft, or ..... ------ Identification
Fixed wing special VFR flights may be approved only if arriving or departing IFR aircraft are not... ------ Delayed
When prompt compliance is used to avoid the development of an imminent situation use the word... ------ Expadite
When expeditious compliance is required to employ an immenent situation use the word... ------ immediately
Provide air traffic control service to air craft on a.... basis as circumstances permit ------ First come first serve
Provide special handling as required, to expadite.... flights ------ Flight check
Respond to another controllers operational request by restating the incomplete or abreviated terms followed by the word...   ------ Approved
ATC service is provided based only upon observed or ... traffic ------ Known
Pilots wishes to exceed prescribed speed limit in class C or D airspace must.. ------ Receive ATC authorization
To meet currency requirements, ATC operators must observe for at least... of the preceeding 6 months at the facility for which their facility rating apply ------ 3
Applicants for a facility rating at any ATC tower must have satisfactorily served, without a facility rating, as an ATC tower operator at that control tower for atleast... ------ 6 months
The minimum separation for an aircraft departing behind a heavy jet departure on parallel runways separtated by at less than 2500ft is... minutes ------ 2
The minimum age requirement to be eligible for a CTO certification is ..... years ------  18
When distances can be determined by suitable landmarks, the separtation minimum between CAT II aircraft departing behind a CAT I departure is ... feet ------ 4500
Do not autorize an aircraft to taxi into position and hold at an intersection between sunset and sunrise, or at any time when an intersection is... ------ Not visible from tower
During daylight hours when distances can be determined by suitable landmarks, an arriving CAT I aircraft must not cross the landing threshold until a departing CAT I aircraft is airborne and at least ..... feet from the landing threshold ------ 3000
Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisory to aircraft landing behind a departing/ arrival... heavy/B57 on a parrallel runway separated by atleast... feet ------ 2500
unless requested by the pilot, do not issue a downwind takeoff to helicopters if the tailwind exceeds.... kts ------ 5
During taxi and ground movements, larger and heavier helicopters show a significant increase in...  ------ Downwash Turbulence 
Sequenced flashing lights shall be operated when the visibility is less than .... miles and instrument approaches are being made to the runway served by the associated ALS ------ 3
Except where a runway use program is in effect, use the calm wind runway when the wind is less than.... kts ------ 5
specialists being relieved and the relieving specialist shall share equal responsibility for the completeness and .... of the position relief briefing ------ accuracy
to achieve proper spacing between helicopters, .... may be more practical than course changes ------ Speed adjustment
Simultaneous same direction aircraft operations on parrallel runways are authorized only when VFR conditions unless.... separtation is applied ------ Visual
Departing IFR civil aircraft should be instructed to contact departure control after takeoff about.... miles beyond the end of the runway  ------ 1/2
The departure control frequence may be omited from a departure clearance if the aircraft is assigned a SID and a frequency is published on the...  ------ the departure procedure
Wake turbulence separation minima should continue to touchdown for all aircraft not making a visual approach or... ------ Maintaining visual separation
issue wake turbulence, cautionary advisories to IFR aircraft that accept a visual approach or ... separtation when operating behind heavy jet/ B57 ------ Visual
The certificate issued by the FAA that authorizes the holder to act as an ATC tower operator is called a .... certificate ------ CTO
An endorsement that an applicant has to meet the requirements to control ATC at a facility is called a... ------ Facility rating
Aircraft A, CAT II, is on final approach. Aircraft B, CAT III, is departing on the same runway. When suitable landmarks are used a reference, the minimum distance required for separation between the two aircraft is .... feet ------ PICTURE 6000
In order to conduct Land and Hold Short Operations on intersecting runways, both runways must be dry with NO braking action reports of less than ------ Good
Aircraft A is departing Runway 10.  Aircraft B is on final approach to Runway 16.  Ensure that aircraft B does NOT cross the landing threshold until aircraft A has departed and passed the  ------ Intersection  (PICTURE)
The term "high Key" relates to a ... approach ------ simulated flame-out
The maximum allowable airspeed for an aircraft below 10,000 feet is .... kts ------ 250
Position lights on aircraft must be lighted between ------ sunset and sunrise
A flashing green light signal to an aircraft on the ground means the aircraft is cleared to  ------ taxi
On an overhead approach, the initial approach is .... nautical miles in length ------ 3 to 5
A pilot encountering an urgency situation should broadcast  "...." 3 times ------ PAN-PAN
What procedure permits one controller to transfer radar identification of an aircraft to another controller, request approval for an aircraft to enter another controller's airspace, and retain radio communications with the aircraft ------ Handoff
What phraseology term is used to inform the controller initiating a hand-off that the aircraft is identified and approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller's airspace? ------ radar contact
Special VFR aircraft are NOT assigned fixed altitudes because of the .... requirement ------ clearance from clouds
Special VFR minima are prescribed in Federal Aviation Regulations, part.... ------ 91
Gate hold procedures shall be implemented whenever departure delays exceed.... minutes ------ 15
If the reported ceiling/sky condition is above 5000 feet and visibility is more than... miles, ceiling, visibility, and obstruction to vision are optional in the ATIS message ------ 5
when runway braking action reports of "FAIR", "POOR", and "NIL" are received, what statement should be included on the ATIS broadcast ------ Braking action advisories are in effect
Between sunrise and sunset, ceiling or visibility below basic VFR minima is indicated by turning on the  ------ rotating beacon
Reportable values are .... feet or less for Runway Visual Range (RVR) and 1 1/2 miles or less for Runway Visibility Value (RVV) ------ 6000
The physical dimensions of class C airspace will normally be a .... NM radius capped at 4000 feet above the primary airport ------ 5
Class c airspace shall extend down to .... feet above the surface, except that an inner core with a 5 NM radius shall extend down to the surface ------ 1200
when operating Special VFR in Class B, C, D or E airspace, all aircraft except.... are required to meet the same visibility requirements ------ helicopters
Intersection departures may be initiated or authorized by a controller if they are ------ requested by the pilot
The size and shape of a TRSA/Class B airspace will vary depending upon.... ------ operational requirements
Minimum vertical separation between VFR aircraft and IFR aircraft within class C airspace is .... feet ------ 500
The reduced runway separation minimum between a Category III departure followed by a category I arrival is .... feet ------ 6000
the order listing of items to be covered during a position relief breifing is called the .... ------ checklist
After an aircraft has been issued a clearance to taxi into position to hold on a runway, what phraesology is used to prevent the aircraft from inadvertently taking off ------ hold in position
Aircraft operating at or above 18,000 feet MSL shall set their altimeter to  ------ 29.92
Aircraft approaching to land should circle the airport to the.... ------ left
Except over mountainous areas, the minimum IFR altitude is... feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of a  nautical miles from the course to be flown  ------ 1000
An appropriate VFR altitude for an aircraft on a magnetic course of 200 degrees is .... feet ------ 6500
FAA light inspection aircraft are identified by the call sign ------ Flight check
When appropriate procedural requirements are met, separation between aircraft may be reduced to ... miles with 10 NM of the runway ------ 2 1/2
A designated Short takeoff and landing runway may be assigned only when requested by the pilot or as specified in a  ------ Letter of agreement with the aircraft operator
Which terminal controller is responsible for sequencing IFR arriving aircraft ------ Approach Control
which controller is normally responsible for aircraft and vehicular movement around the airport ------ ground Control
NO person may fly in formation if the aircraft is carrying ------ hazardous material
Aircraft in distress has the right of way over ------ all other aircraft
In converging situations involving aircraft of different categories, the right of way over all aircraft is given to  ------ balloons
within Class B airspace, the maximum airspeed of  turbine powered aircraft is ... knots ------ 200
the first item stated during initial call up to an aircraft is the  ------ aircraft identification

Side A ------ Side B
Controllers who encounter situations that are not covered in the JO 7.110.65 are expected to... ------ Use their best judgement
Procedural letters of agreement require the concurence of... ------ more than one facility
The word "shall" means the procedure is... ------ mandatory
The word that means the procedure is recomended is... ------ Should
When time is used in the context of a clock reading, hours and minutes are expressed in..  ------ coordinating the universal time UTC
When reading the time, the change to the next minute is made at the minute plus... seconds ------ 30
When determining priority of duty the controller should excersize..  ------ good judgment
the time check is given to the nearest... ------ quarter minute 15 seconds
Give first priority to issuing saftey alerts and... ------ separating aircraft
The use of non radar separation is prefered over radar separation when ...... will begin ------ operational advantage
A safety alert is issued when a controller recognizes a situation of unsafe aircraft proximity to terrain, obstacles, or ..... ------ other aircraft
when workload, communication, and equipement permitted, .... procedures are preferred ------ Automation
The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is separating aircraft and .... ------ issuing safety alerts
Identify a primary radar beacon target by observing target making a turn of ... degrees or more ------ 30 
Local controllers may use certified tower radar displays to determine an aircrafts exact location, relationship to other aircraft, or ..... ------ Identification
Fixed wing special VFR flights may be approved only if arriving or departing IFR aircraft are not... ------ Delayed
When prompt compliance is used to avoid the development of an imminent situation use the word... ------ Expadite
When expeditious compliance is required to employ an immenent situation use the word... ------ immediately
Provide air traffic control service to air craft on a.... basis as circumstances permit ------ First come first serve
Provide special handling as required, to expadite.... flights ------ Flight check
Respond to another controllers operational request by restating the incomplete or abreviated terms followed by the word...   ------ Approved
ATC service is provided based only upon observed or ... traffic ------ Known
Pilots wishes to exceed prescribed speed limit in class C or D airspace must.. ------ Receive ATC authorization
To meet currency requirements, ATC operators must observe for at least... of the preceeding 6 months at the facility for which their facility rating apply ------ 3
Applicants for a facility rating at any ATC tower must have satisfactorily served, without a facility rating, as an ATC tower operator at that control tower for atleast... ------ 6 months
The minimum separation for an aircraft departing behind a heavy jet departure on parallel runways separtated by at less than 2500ft is... minutes ------ 2
The minimum age requirement to be eligible for a CTO certification is ..... years ------  18
When distances can be determined by suitable landmarks, the separtation minimum between CAT II aircraft departing behind a CAT I departure is ... feet ------ 4500
Do not autorize an aircraft to taxi into position and hold at an intersection between sunset and sunrise, or at any time when an intersection is... ------ Not visible from tower
During daylight hours when distances can be determined by suitable landmarks, an arriving CAT I aircraft must not cross the landing threshold until a departing CAT I aircraft is airborne and at least ..... feet from the landing threshold ------ 3000
Issue wake turbulence cautionary advisory to aircraft landing behind a departing/ arrival... heavy/B57 on a parrallel runway separated by atleast... feet ------ 2500
unless requested by the pilot, do not issue a downwind takeoff to helicopters if the tailwind exceeds.... kts ------ 5
During taxi and ground movements, larger and heavier helicopters show a significant increase in...  ------ Downwash Turbulence 
Sequenced flashing lights shall be operated when the visibility is less than .... miles and instrument approaches are being made to the runway served by the associated ALS ------ 3
Except where a runway use program is in effect, use the calm wind runway when the wind is less than.... kts ------ 5
specialists being relieved and the relieving specialist shall share equal responsibility for the completeness and .... of the position relief briefing ------ accuracy
to achieve proper spacing between helicopters, .... may be more practical than course changes ------ Speed adjustment
Simultaneous same direction aircraft operations on parrallel runways are authorized only when VFR conditions unless.... separtation is applied ------ Visual
Departing IFR civil aircraft should be instructed to contact departure control after takeoff about.... miles beyond the end of the runway  ------ 1/2
The departure control frequence may be omited from a departure clearance if the aircraft is assigned a SID and a frequency is published on the...  ------ the departure procedure
Wake turbulence separation minima should continue to touchdown for all aircraft not making a visual approach or... ------ Maintaining visual separation
issue wake turbulence, cautionary advisories to IFR aircraft that accept a visual approach or ... separtation when operating behind heavy jet/ B57 ------ Visual
The certificate issued by the FAA that authorizes the holder to act as an ATC tower operator is called a .... certificate ------ CTO
An endorsement that an applicant has to meet the requirements to control ATC at a facility is called a... ------ Facility rating
Aircraft A, CAT II, is on final approach. Aircraft B, CAT III, is departing on the same runway. When suitable landmarks are used a reference, the minimum distance required for separation between the two aircraft is .... feet ------ PICTURE 6000
In order to conduct Land and Hold Short Operations on intersecting runways, both runways must be dry with NO braking action reports of less than ------ Good
Aircraft A is departing Runway 10.  Aircraft B is on final approach to Runway 16.  Ensure that aircraft B does NOT cross the landing threshold until aircraft A has departed and passed the  ------ Intersection  (PICTURE)
The term "high Key" relates to a ... approach ------ simulated flame-out
The maximum allowable airspeed for an aircraft below 10,000 feet is .... kts ------ 250
Position lights on aircraft must be lighted between ------ sunset and sunrise
A flashing green light signal to an aircraft on the ground means the aircraft is cleared to  ------ taxi
On an overhead approach, the initial approach is .... nautical miles in length ------ 3 to 5
A pilot encountering an urgency situation should broadcast  "...." 3 times ------ PAN-PAN
What procedure permits one controller to transfer radar identification of an aircraft to another controller, request approval for an aircraft to enter another controller's airspace, and retain radio communications with the aircraft ------ Handoff
What phraseology term is used to inform the controller initiating a hand-off that the aircraft is identified and approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller's airspace? ------ radar contact
Special VFR aircraft are NOT assigned fixed altitudes because of the .... requirement ------ clearance from clouds
Special VFR minima are prescribed in Federal Aviation Regulations, part.... ------ 91
Gate hold procedures shall be implemented whenever departure delays exceed.... minutes ------ 15
If the reported ceiling/sky condition is above 5000 feet and visibility is more than... miles, ceiling, visibility, and obstruction to vision are optional in the ATIS message ------ 5
when runway braking action reports of "FAIR", "POOR", and "NIL" are received, what statement should be included on the ATIS broadcast ------ Braking action advisories are in effect
Between sunrise and sunset, ceiling or visibility below basic VFR minima is indicated by turning on the  ------ rotating beacon
Reportable values are .... feet or less for Runway Visual Range (RVR) and 1 1/2 miles or less for Runway Visibility Value (RVV) ------ 6000
The physical dimensions of class C airspace will normally be a .... NM radius capped at 4000 feet above the primary airport ------ 5
Class c airspace shall extend down to .... feet above the surface, except that an inner core with a 5 NM radius shall extend down to the surface ------ 1200
when operating Special VFR in Class B, C, D or E airspace, all aircraft except.... are required to meet the same visibility requirements ------ helicopters
Intersection departures may be initiated or authorized by a controller if they are ------ requested by the pilot
The size and shape of a TRSA/Class B airspace will vary depending upon.... ------ operational requirements
Minimum vertical separation between VFR aircraft and IFR aircraft within class C airspace is .... feet ------ 500
The reduced runway separation minimum between a Category III departure followed by a category I arrival is .... feet ------ 6000
the order listing of items to be covered during a position relief breifing is called the .... ------ checklist
After an aircraft has been issued a clearance to taxi into position to hold on a runway, what phraesology is used to prevent the aircraft from inadvertently taking off ------ hold in position
Aircraft operating at or above 18,000 feet MSL shall set their altimeter to  ------ 29.92
Aircraft approaching to land should circle the airport to the.... ------ left
Except over mountainous areas, the minimum IFR altitude is... feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of a  nautical miles from the course to be flown  ------ 1000
An appropriate VFR altitude for an aircraft on a magnetic course of 200 degrees is .... feet ------ 6500
FAA light inspection aircraft are identified by the call sign ------ Flight check
When appropriate procedural requirements are met, separation between aircraft may be reduced to ... miles with 10 NM of the runway ------ 2 1/2
A designated Short takeoff and landing runway may be assigned only when requested by the pilot or as specified in a  ------ Letter of agreement with the aircraft operator
Which terminal controller is responsible for sequencing IFR arriving aircraft ------ Approach Control
which controller is normally responsible for aircraft and vehicular movement around the airport ------ ground Control
NO person may fly in formation if the aircraft is carrying ------ hazardous material
Aircraft in distress has the right of way over ------ all other aircraft
In converging situations involving aircraft of different categories, the right of way over all aircraft is given to  ------ balloons
within Class B airspace, the maximum airspeed of  turbine powered aircraft is ... knots ------ 200
the first item stated during initial call up to an aircraft is the  ------ aircraft identification