Psychology 2

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1. 
Basic immediate experiences that a stimulus elicits in a sense organ are called:
 
Sensations
 
2. 
The process of interpreting, organizing, and elaborating on the raw materials of sensation is called:
 
Perception
 
3. 
Transduction can be defined as:
 
process by which sensory organs transfer energy into electrochemical energy threshold.
 
4. 
The minimum physical intensity of a stimulus that can be perceived by an observer 50% of the time is:
 
Threshold
 
5. 
A greater portion of the human brain is devoted to________ than any of out other senses.
 
Vision
 
6. 
The __________ of visible light determines its hue, or color.
 
Saturation
 
7. 
The film or image surface of a camera corresponds to the _______ if the eye
 
retina
 
8. 
The focusing process in which the lens adjusts its shape depending on the distance between the eye and the object viewed in order to project a clear image onto the retina is called:
 
Accommodation
 
9. 
The spot inside the eye where the ganglion cells meet to form the optic nerve is known as the:
 
Blind spot
 
10. 
According to the opponent-process theory of color vision, the members of each system:
 
inhibit vision of another
 
11. 
Loudness of sound is called_____ and expressed in units of ______
 
Volume, Decibles
 
12. 
Which theory states that perception of low tones depends on the frequency with which auditory hair cells in the inner ear trigger the firing of neurons in the auditory nerve?
 
Frequency Theory of Pitch Discrimination
 
13. 
The sense of gustation is classified as a______ sense
 
Taste
 
14. 
Where do you find the receptors for the olfactory sense?
 
Nose
 
15. 
Which of the following is not one of the primary skin sensations?
 
(touch, temperature, and pain) are skin sensations
 
16. 
Which of the following is cited as a reason why pain is understood so little?
 
Gate-control theory
 
17. 
Pur perceptual tendency to group together objects that are near each other is called:
 
Proximity
 
18. 
The principle of perceptual organization that attempts to explain how we organize information into meaningful wholes or Gestalts is called:
 
Perceptual Grouping
 
19. 
The difference in the retinal image of an object as seen from each eye provides an important cue for depth which is called:
 
Monocular Cues
 
20. 
Circadian rhythms vary around what type of cycle?
 
Sleeping and Waking
 
21. 
The two key characteristics of brain waves are:
 
Amplitude and Frequency
 
22. 
REM periods of sleep tend to _____ as the night wears on.
 
lengthen
 
23. 
In a night's sleep, we move through successive sleep cycles that are each about:
 
90 minutes
 
24. 
Research depriving people of sleep for up to a week has shown that sleep-deprived individuals:
 
hallucinate, delusions, double vision
 
25. 
The suggestion that it is better to study just prior to sleeping is based on which suggested function of sleep:
 
Sleeping for memory
 
26. 
People tend to _____ when they are experiencing relationship conflicts, problems at work, or other emotionally stressful events.
 
Dream
 
27. 
Frued theorized that dreams reflected:
 
wishes or desires, manifest content
 
28. 
According to Frued, the manifest content of a dream:
 
Disguised version of latent content. What actually happens in the dream.
 
29. 
A sleep disorder in which people fail to breathe regularly during sleep is:
 
Sleep Apnea
 
30. 
A sleep disorder that may cause a person to awaken several hundred times a night in order to breathe is:
 
Sleep Apnea
 
31. 
A sleep disorder in which a person falls asleep suddenly during normal waking activities is known as:
 
Narcolepsy
 
32. 
Which sleep disorder has been linked to an abnormality in the brain mechanisms that control sleep and waking?
 
Narcolepsy
 
33. 
Nightmare occur during______ sleep
 
REM
 
34. 
In which of the following stages will sleep talking, sleep walking, and night terrors most likely occur?
 
Stage 4
 
35. 
Sleepwalking almost always occurs during:
 
Stage 3 or 4
 
36. 
Somnambulism is the technical term for:
 
Sleepwalking
 
37. 
Hypnosis is believed by some researchers to be a state of:
 
altered consciousness, deep relaxation
 
38. 
Evidence suggests that hypnosis can:
 
Reduce pain, NOT athletic ability, memory, or relieve ailments
 
39. 
In a posthypnotic suggestion, the subjects:
 
preform a variety of actions after returning to normal state.
 
40. 
Relatively enduring change in potential behavior that results from experience defines:
 
Learning
 
41. 
The meat placed in a dog's mouth by Pavlov is referred to as the :
 
UCS (Unconditioned Stimulus)
 
42. 
In what way does an unconditioned response differ from a conditioned response?
 
One is controlled and the other is uncontrolled
 
43. 
When a child learns that pushing a button brings the elevator, the experts refer to this type learning as:
 
Operant Conditioning
 
44. 
In classical conditioning, a conditioned response is defined as a:
 
learned response to stimulus
 
45. 
Extinction of the CR in classical conditioning occurs when the:
 
CS is repeated without UCS
 
46. 
After extinction had occurred in Pavlov's dogs, the bell could cause salivation when presented again at a later time. This phenomenon is called:
 
Spontaneous recovery
 
47. 
A child is knocked down by a large friendly dog and is frightened. Later he sees his grandmother's dog and is frightened. The fear has been:
 
Classically conditioned
 
48. 
Stimulus discrimination differs from stimulus generalization in that:
 
more specific ex. fear of big dogs and not all dogs
 
49. 
The Law of Effect was proposed by:
 
Thorndike
 
50. 
A stimulus that controls a response by signaling the availability of reinforcement is a:
 
Discriminative stimulus
 
51. 
When an experimenter does not reinforce every correct response, it is referred to as:
 
Partial reinforcement shedule
 
52. 
Reinforcers increase the probability that behavior will be:
 
continued
 
53. 
Positive reinforcers are:
 
stimulus presented after response that increases probability of response
 
54. 
Extinction will occur in operant conditioning when operant operant behavior is:
 
discontinuing reinforcement
 
55. 
Which of the following is a primary reinforcer?
 
Satisfies biological needs (hunger, thirst etc.)
 
56. 
In a ___ schedule, reinforcement is provided after a various number of correct responses have been made.
 
VR, Variable Ratio
 
57. 
When behavior is demonstrated to a learner, the technique is called:
 
Modeling
 
58. 
One basic difference between classical conditioning and operant conditioning is that:
 
Elicit vs Emitted
 
59. 
Which of the following is desirable regarding the uses of punishment?
 
Extinction of an action
 
60. 
The most effective means of permanently stopping your seven-year-old son from snitching cookies from the cookie jar is to:
 
Punish them
 
61. 
What type of learning is not mechanically acquired through reinforcement and in which overt responses may not be a result?
 
Classical, Elicit
 
62. 
The process by which sensory organs transform mechanical, chemical, or light energy into the electrochemical energy of neutral transmission is called:
 
Transduction
 
63. 
While _____ are responsible for color vision, ______ allow us to see in dim light.
 
cones, rods
 
64. 
If the frequency of a sound stimulus changes, you would perceive a change in:
 
Pitch
 
65. 
The two factors that allow us to locate the place of origin of a sound stimulus are:
 
intensity and time
 
66. 
The receptor cells for smell are located in) on) the
 
nose, olfactory, mucosa
 
67. 
When you incorrectly perceive that two lines are the same length when they are not, you are experiencing:
 
Illusion
 
68. 
The suprachiasmatic nucleus adjusts the biological clock by monitoring activity in the:
 
Hypothalamus
 
69. 
Which of the following bodily functions are reduced during REM sleep?
 
Skeletal Muscle Movement
 
70. 
According to Frued, the ______ us the "true" meaning of a dream.
 
Latent Content
 
71. 
A serious sleep disorder in which a person stops breathing and frequently must waken briefly in order to breathe describes:
 
Sleep Apnea
 
72. 
If a dog salivates after hearing the sound of a bell, salivation would be a:
 
CR, Conditioned Response
 
73. 
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between the UCR and CR?
 
Same response
 
74. 
Conditioned taste aversion illustrate the concept of:
 
Classical Conditioning
 
75. 
"Any even that increases the probability that a response will occur" is the definition of:
 
Renforcement
 
76. 
A reinforcer that is reinforcing because it causes something unpleasant to end or not occur is called a:
 
Negative reinforcement
 
77. 
Immediately after being reinforced, a rat on which schedule of reinforcement would show the longest pause before is makes the next bar press?
 
FI. Fixed Ratio
 
78. 
Which technique for obtaining an initial operant response would be most effective in teaching a rat to bar press?
 
Shaping