Nutrition Class Midterm

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1. 


Correct 1. Which of the following is a purpose of both the Recommended Dietary Allowance and Adequate Intake? A) Setting nutrient goals for individuals
B) Identifying toxic intakes of nutrients
C) Restoring health of malnourished individuals
D) Developing nutrition programs for schoolchildren
 
A
 
2. 
2. What is the benefit of using placebos in an experiment? A) All subjects are similar
B) All subjects receive a treatment
C) Neither subjects nor researchers know who is receiving treatment
D) One group of subjects receives a treatment and the other group receives nothing
 
B
 
3. 
3. Recommended Dietary Allowances may be used to A) measure nutrient balance of population groups.
B) assess dietary nutrient adequacy for individuals.
C) treat persons with diet-related illnesses.
D) calculate exact food requirements for most individuals
 
B
 
4. 
4. Inspection of hair, eyes, skin, and posture is part of the nutrition assessment component known as A) diet history.
B) anthropometrics.
C) biochemical testing.
D) physical examination.
 
D
 
5. 
5. All of the following features are shared by the RDA and the AI EXCEPT A) both are included in the DRI.
B) both serve as nutrient intake goals for individuals.
C) neither covers 100% of the population's nutrient needs.
D) neither is useful for evaluating nutrition programs for groups of people.
 
D
 
6. 
6. Recommended Dietary Allowances are based on the A) Lower Tolerable Limit.
B) Upper Tolerable Limit.
C) Subclinical Deficiency Value.
D) Estimated Average Requirement.
 
D
 
7. 

7.

Which of the following is a result of the metabolism of energy nutrients?

A) Energy is released

B) Body fat increases

C) Energy is destroyed

D) Body water decreases

 
A
 
8. 

8.

Which of the following is an anthropometric measure?

A) Body weight

B) Blood pressure

C) Blood iron level

D) Food intake information

 
A
 
9. 

9.

Which of the following is an example of a macronutrient?

A) Protein

B) Calcium

C) Vitamin C

D) Vitamin D

 
A
 
10. 

10.

Factors known to be related to a disease but not proven to be causal are called

A) risk factors.

B) genetic factors.

C) degenerative factors.

D) environmental factors.

 
A
 
11. 

11.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the minerals?

A) Yield no energy

B) Unstable to light

C) Stable in cooked foods

D) Structurally smaller than vitamins

 
B
 
12. 

12.

Nonnutrient substances found in plant foods that show biological activity in the body are commonly known as

A) folionutrients.

B) inorganic fibers.

C) phytochemicals.

D) phyllochemicals.

 
C
 
13. 

13.

Which of the following would most likely lead to a primary nutrient deficiency?

A) Inadequate nutrient intake

B) Reduced nutrient absorption

C) Increased nutrient excretion

D) Increased nutrient destruction

 
A
 
14. 

14.

You have been asked to help a top nutrition researcher conduct human experiments on vitamin C. As the subjects walk into the laboratory, you distribute all the vitamin C pill bottles to the girls and all the placebo pill bottles to the boys. The researcher instantly informs you that there are two errors in your research practice. What steps should you have done differently?

A) Given all the boys the vitamin C and the girls the placebo, and told them what they were getting

B) Distributed the bottles randomly, randomized the subjects, and told them what they were getting

C) Told the subjects which group they were in, and prevented yourself from knowing the contents of the pill bottles

D) Prevented yourself from knowing what was in the pill bottles, and distributed the bottles randomly to the subjects

 
D
 
15. 

15.

Which of the following is a feature of the minerals as nutrients?

A) They are organic

B) They yield 4 kcalories per gram

C) Some become dissolved in body fluids

D) Some may be destroyed during cooking

 
C
 
16. 

16.

The Dietary Reference Intakes may be used to

A) treat people with diet-related disorders.

B) assess adequacy of all required nutrients.

C) plan and evaluate diets for healthy people.

D) assess adequacy of only vitamins and minerals.

 
C
 
17. 

17.

A child's strong dislike of noodle soup that developed after she consumed some when she was sick with flu is an example of a food-related

A) habit.

B) social interaction.

C) emotional turmoil.

D) negative association.

 
D
 
18. 

18.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the composition of most foods?

A) They contain only one of the three energy nutrients, although a few contain all of them

B) They contain equal amounts of the three energy nutrients, except for high-fat foods

C) They contain mixtures of the three energy nutrients, although only one or two may predominate

D) They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, although there are numerous other foods that contain only one

 
C
 
19. 

19.

What single behavior contributes to the most deaths in the United States?

A) Poor diet

B) Tobacco use

C) Alcohol intake

D) Sexual activity

 
B
 
20. 

20.

Which of the following most accurately defines the term organic?

A) Products sold at health food stores

B) Products grown without use of pesticides

C) Foods having superior nutrient qualities

D) Substances with carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen bonds

 
D
 
21. 

1.

Among the following, which is the major weakness of a laboratory-based study?

A) The costs are usually high

B) It is difficult to replicate the findings

C) The results cannot be applied to human beings

D) Experimental variables cannot be easily controlled

 
C
 
22. 

2.

As a registered dietitian at Jones Hospital, you are instructed to write a policy statement on nutrition assessment procedures for all new patients. Which of the following are the most useful parameters for the nutrition assessment of individuals?

A) Diet recall, food likes and dislikes, allergies, favorite family recipes

B) Anthropometric data, physical examinations, food likes and dislikes, family tree

C) Diet record that includes what the patient usually eats, which will provide sufficient information

D) Historical information, anthropometric data, physical examinations, laboratory tests

 
D
 
23. 

3.

Which of the following represents a rationale for DRI energy recommendations?

A) Because protein is an energy nutrient, the figures for energy intake are set in proportion to protein intake

B) Because a large number of people are overweight, the figures are set to induce a gradual weight loss in most individuals

C) Because the energy needs within each population group show little variation, the figures are set to meet the needs of almost all individuals

D) Because a margin of safety would result in excess energy intake for a large number of people, the figures are set at the average energy intake

 
D
 
24. 

4.

A person viewing an exciting sports match of her favorite team and eating because of nervousness would be displaying a food choice behavior most likely based on

A) habit.

B) availability.

C) emotional comfort.

D) positive association.

 
C
 
25. 

5.

What is the term that defines foods that contain nonnutrient substances whose known action in the body is to promote well-being to a greater extent than that contributed by the food's nutrients?

A) Fortified foods

B) Enriched foods

C) Functional foods

D) Health-enhancing foods

 
C
 
26. 

6.

Which of the following is a purpose of both the Recommended Dietary Allowance and Adequate Intake?

A) Setting nutrient goals for individuals

B) Identifying toxic intakes of nutrients

C) Restoring health of malnourished individuals

D) Developing nutrition programs for schoolchildren

 
A
 
27. 

7.

Which of the following is NOT one of the six classes of nutrients?

A) Fiber

B) Protein

C) Minerals

D) Vitamins

 
A
 
28. 

8.

Which of the following is used to determine the presence of abnormal functions inside the body due to a nutrient deficiency?

A) Diet history

B) Laboratory tests

C) Body weight loss

D) Physical examination

 
B
 
29. 

9.

What is the benefit of using placebos in an experiment?

A) All subjects are similar

B) All subjects receive a treatment

C) Neither subjects nor researchers know who is receiving treatment

D) One group of subjects receives a treatment and the other group receives nothing

 
B
 
30. 

10.

A clinical trial must involve

A) tissue cells in culture.

B) rats or mice as subjects.

C) human beings as subjects.

D) computer modeling to design the study.

 
C
 
31. 

The goal of Healthy People is to

A) establish the DRI.

B) identify national trends in food consumption.

C) identify leading causes of death in the United States.

D) set goals for the nation's health over the next 10 years.

 
D
 
32. 

12.

Which of the following statements defines the association between a risk factor and the development of a disease?

A) All people with the risk factor will develop the disease

B) The absence of a risk factor guarantees freedom from the disease

C) The more risk factors for a disease, the greater the chance of developing that disease

D) The presence of a factor such as heredity can be modified to lower the risk of degenerative diseases

 
C
 
33. 

13.

For which of the following titles, by definition, must the individual be college educated and pass a national examination administered by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics?

A) Medical doctor

B) Registered dietician

C) Certified nutritionist

D) Certified nutrition therapist

 
B
 
34. 

14.

What is the meaning of a double-blind experiment?

A) Both subject groups take turns getting each treatment

B) Neither subjects nor researchers know which subjects are in the control or experimental group

C) Neither group of subjects knows whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do know

D) Both subject groups know whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do not know

 
B
 
35. 

15.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the minerals?

A) Yield no energy

B) Unstable to light

C) Stable in cooked foods

D) Structurally smaller than vitamins

 
B
 
36. 

16.

How much energy is required to raise the temperature of one kilogram (liter) of water 1°C?

A) 10 calories

B) 1 kilocalorie

C) 10,000 calories

D) 1000 kilocalories
 
B
 
37. 

17.

Who would be the most appropriate person to consult regarding nutrition information?

A) Chiropractor

B) Medical doctor

C) Registered dietitian

D) Health food store manager

 
C
 
38. 

18.

Which of the following is classified as a micronutrient?

A) Iron

B) Protein

C) Alcohol

D) Carbohydrate

 
A
 
39. 

19.

What type of deficiency is caused by inadequate absorption of a nutrient?

A) Primary

B) Clinical

C) Secondary

D) Subclinical

 
C
 
40. 

20.

A child's strong dislike of noodle soup that developed after she consumed some when she was sick with flu is an example of a food-related

A) habit.

B) social interaction.

C) emotional turmoil.

D) negative association.

 
D
 
41. 

All of the following features are shared by the RDA and the AI EXCEPT

A) both are included in the DRI.

B) both serve as nutrient intake goals for individuals.

C) neither covers 100% of the population's nutrient needs.

D) neither is useful for evaluating nutrition programs for groups of people.

 
D
 
42. 

2.

Which of the following is NOT among the consequences of making poor food choices?

A) Over the long term, they will reduce lifespan in some people

B) They can promote heart disease and cancer over the long term

C) Over the long term, they will not affect lifespan in some people

D) When made over just a single day, they exert great harm to your health

 
D
 
43. 

3.

Which of the following factors makes the greatest contribution to deaths in the United States?

A) Guns

B) Alcohol

C) Tobacco

D) Automobiles

 
C
 
44. 

4.

For which of the following titles, by definition, must the individual be college educated and pass a national examination administered by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics?

A) Medical doctor

B) Registered dietician

C) Certified nutritionist

D) Certified nutrition therapist

 
B
 
45. 

5.

An increase in exercise accompanied by a decrease in body weight is an example of a

A) variable effect.

B) positive correlation.

C) negative correlation.

D) randomization effect.

 
C
 
46. 

6.

Nonnutrient substances found in plant foods that show biological activity in the body are commonly known as

A) folionutrients.

B) inorganic fibers.

C) phytochemicals.

 
C
 
47. 

7.

Which of the following is an organic compound?

A) Salt

B) Water

C) Calcium

D) Vitamin C

 
D
 
48. 

8.

Which of the following is classified as a micronutrient?

A) Iron

B) Protein

C) Alcohol

D) Carbohydrate

 
A
 
49. 

9.

Which of the following best describes a college-educated nutrition and food specialist who is qualified to make evaluations of the nutritional health of people?

A) Registered dietitian

B) Licensed nutritionist

C) Master of nutrient utilization

D) Doctor of food and nutritional sciences

 
A
 
50. 

10.

Which of the following nutrient sources yields more than 4 kcalories per gram?

A) Plant fats

B) Plant proteins

C) Animal proteins

D) Plant carbohydrates

 
A
 
51. 

11.

How are the RDA for almost all vitamin and mineral intakes set?

A) Low, to reduce the risk of toxicity

B) High, to cover virtually all healthy individuals

C) Extremely high, to cover every single person

D) At the mean, to cover most healthy individuals

 
B
 
52. 

12.

Which of the following cannot add fat to the body?

A) Alcohol

B) Proteins

C) Carbohydrates

D) Inorganic nutrients

 
D
 
53. 

13.

What is the kcalorie value of a meal supplying 110 g of carbohydrates, 25 g of protein, 20 g of fat, and 5 g of alcohol?

A) 160

B) 345

C) 560

D) 755

 
D
 
54. 

14.

Which of the following most accurately defines the term organic?

A) Products sold at health food stores

B) Products grown without use of pesticides

C) Foods having superior nutrient qualities

D) Substances with carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen bonds

 
D
 
55. 

15.

The goal of Healthy People is to

A) establish the DRI.

B) identify national trends in food consumption.

C) identify leading causes of death in the United States.

D) set goals for the nation's health over the next 10 years.

 
D
 
56. 

16.

A person who eats a bowl of oatmeal for breakfast every day is most likely making a food choice based on

A) habit.

B) availability.

C) body image.

D) environmental concerns.

 
A
 
57. 

17.

A person who assists registered dietitians has the formal title of

A) dietetic assistant.

B) nutrition assistant.

C) dietetic technician.

D) nutrition technician.

 
C
 
58. 

18.

Which of the following is an example of a micronutrient?

A) Fat

B) Protein

C) Vitamin C

D) Carbohydrate

 
C
 
59. 

19.

Which of the following is a result of the metabolism of energy nutrients?

A) Energy is released

B) Body fat increases

C) Energy is destroyed

D) Body water decreases

 
A
 
60. 

20.

A child's strong dislike of noodle soup that developed after she consumed some when she was sick with flu is an example of a food-related

A) habit.

B) social interaction.

C) emotional turmoil.

D) negative association.

 
D
 
61. 

1.

Which of the following is a feature of U.S. laws governing information on food labels?

A) The term "fresh" can be used only for raw and moderately processed food

B) Nutrition labeling must appear on virtually all processed as well as fresh foods

C) Restaurant foods must provide nutrient content information on the menu

D) Nutrition labeling is not required on foods produced by small businesses or products produced and sold in the same establishment

 
D
 
62. 

2.

Meat replacements consumed by vegetarians are usually made of

A) soy protein.

B) fish protein.

C) bean plus rice proteins.

D) bean plus cheese proteins.

 
A
 
63. 

3.

Which of the following is a characteristic of enriched grain products?

A) They have all of the added nutrients listed on the label

B) They have the fiber restored from the refining procedure

C) They have virtually all the nutrients restored from refining procedure

D) They have only 4 vitamins and 4 minerals added by the food manufacturer

 
A
 
64. 

4.

Which of the following product labels always denotes a whole-grain product?

A) Multi-grain

B) 100% wheat

C) Whole-wheat

D) Stone-ground

 
C
 
65. 

5.

Nutrient dense refers to foods that

A) carry the USDA nutrition labeling.

B) are higher in weight relative to volume.

C) provide more nutrients relative to kcalories.

D) contain a mixture of carbohydrate, fat, and protein.

 
C
 
66. 

6.

Which of the following is a feature of the Nutrition Facts panel on a food label?

A) Trans fat content is optional

B) Saturated fat must be listed

C) Naturally present sugars are excluded

D) Soluble and insoluble fiber must be listed separately

 
B
 
67. 

7.

Approximately what minimum percentage of all grains consumed by a person should be whole grains?

A) 20

B) 35

C) 50

D) 100

 
C
 
68. 

8.

Textured vegetable protein is usually made from

A) soybeans.

B) corn stalks.

C) a mixture of legumes.

D) cruciferous vegetables.

 
A
 
69. 

9.

Tempeh is made from

A) soybeans.

B) any legume.

C) fermented leafy vegetables.

D) fermented yellow vegetables.

 
A
 
70. 

10.

An important feature of the food group subgroupings is that

A) all vegetables do not provide an array of nutrients.

B) consuming legumes supplies protein but not fiber or vitamins.

C) it is not necessary to consume every subgroup every day.

D) it is acceptable to consume broccoli every day for a week to meet the vegetables group intake.

 
C
 
71. 

11.

According to the FDA, a food label that reads "improves memory" is an example of a

A) health claim.

B) Daily Value claim.

C) qualified health claim.

D) structure-function claim.

 
D
 
72. 

12.

Which of the following is NOT a legume?

A) Peas

B) Beans

C) Peanuts

D) Potatoes

 
D
 
73. 

13.

Which of the following ingredients on a food label is most likely a source of trans fats?

A) Butter

B) Coconut oil

C) High-fructose corn syrup

D) Partially hydrogenated oils

 
D
 
74. 

14.

Which of the following foods provides discretionary kcalories for the person on a weight-reduction diet?

A) Watermelon

B) Canned pears in syrup

C) Milk with all fat removed.

D) Chicken with the skin removed.

 
B
 
75. 

15.

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the USDA Food Patterns?

A) They place most foods into one of five groups

B) The nutrients of greatest concern include iron, chromium, and vitamin B12

C) They can be used with great flexibility once their intent is understood

D) They specify that a certain quantity of food be consumed from each group, based upon energy intake

 
B
 
76. 

16.

Which of the following terms is used to describe a cut of meat having a low fat content?

A) End

B) Round

C) Prime

D) Choice

 
B
 
77. 

17.

Which of the following foods is nutrient dense and also qualifies as a "good source" of calcium?

A) Cheese with 50 mg of calcium

B) Yogurt with 150 mg of calcium

C) Ice cream with 90 mg calcium

D) Sherbet with 30 mg of calcium

 
B
 
78. 

18.

Which of the following is a healthy choice for protein in the USDA Food Patterns?

A) Nuts

B) Bacon

C) Baked potatoes

D) Sweet potatoes

 
A
 
79. 

19.

Which of the following food groups is actually consumed in amounts greater than recommended by the USDA?

A) Dairy

B) Fruits

C) Vegetables

D) Protein foods

 
D
 
80. 

20.

Which of the following foods could help meet the iron needs of vegetarians who consume dairy?

A) Coconut

B) Legumes

C) Skim milk

D) Potato salad

 
B
 
81. 

1.

Jamie is a vegetarian who is trying to plan a healthy diet according to the USDA Food Patterns. Which of the following protein foods would be the best nutrient choices for one day?

A) 2 pieces bacon, 1/2 can tuna, 2 pieces bread

B) 1/2 cup pinto beans, 1/2 cup tofu, 2 tbsp peanut butter

C) 1/2 cup black beans, 2 tbsp peanut butter, 1 c spinach

D) 1 skinless chicken breast, 2 egg whites, meal replacement bar

 
C
 
82. 

2.

Which of the following are allowed in the diet of a lactovegetarian?

A) Plant foods only

B) Eggs and plant foods only

C) Meat, eggs, and plant foods only

D) Milk products and plant foods only

 
D
 
83. 

3.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a macrobiotic diet?

A) It excludes all hot and salty foods

B) It permits inclusion of many on-organic foods

C) It represents a way of life rather than just a way of eating

D) It emphasizes abundant amounts of fish, fruits, nuts, and seeds

 
C
 
84. 

4.

Which of the following foods' kcalories would be considered as part of one's discretionary kcalorie allowance?

A) Jam

B) Watermelon

C) Raw carrots

D) Brussels sprouts

 
A
 
85. 

5.

A food label that advertises the product as a "rich source of fiber" is an example of a

A) nutrient claim.

B) health claim.

C) weight reduction claim.

D) structure-function claim.

 
A
 
86. 

6.

All of the following are documented benefits for people following a vegetarian diet EXCEPT

A) lower body weights.

B) lower rates of anemia.

C) lower blood cholesterol levels.

D) lower rates of certain types of cancer.

 
B
 
87. 

Which of the following is a feature of iron nutrition in vegetarians?

A) Vegetarians absorb iron more efficiently

B) Iron utilization is inhibited by the high zinc content in grains

C) The absorption of iron is low due to the high vitamin C intake

D) More iron deficiency is found in vegetarians than in people eating a mixed diet

 
A
 
88. 

8.

A person's customary intake of foods and beverages over time defines her or his

A) body weight.

B) eating pattern.

C) genetic predisposition.

D) risk for inherited diseases.

 
B
 
89. 

9.

On a food label, the "% Daily Value" table compares key nutrients per serving for a person consuming how many kcalories daily?

A) 1500

B) 2000

C) 2500

D) 3000

 
B
 
90. 

10.

Which of the following is a characteristic of food serving sizes?

A) Serving sizes for most foods have not yet been established by the FDA

B) The serving size for ice cream is 2 cups and the serving size for all beverages is 12 fluid ounces

C) Serving sizes on food labels are not always the same as those of the USDA Food Patterns

D) Serving sizes must be listed in common household measures, such as cups, or metric measures, such as milliliters, but not both

 
C
 
91. 

11.

Which of the following is a major criticism of the use of the MyPlate educational tool?

A) It allows for oversized portions

B) The Dairy group excludes ice cream

C) The five groups are not clearly identified

D) It treats all foods within a single group the same

 
D
 
92. 

12.

Which of the following foods could help meet the iron needs of vegetarians who consume dairy?

A) Coconut

B) Legumes

C) Skim milk

D) Potato salad

 
B
 
93. 

13.

Which of the following foods supplies only discretionary kcalories?

A) Bagel

B) Raisins

C) Grape jelly

D) Peanut butter

 
C
 
94. 

14.

Applying the principle of variety in food planning ensures the benefits of

A) moderation.

B) vegetarianism.

C) nutrient density.

D) dilution of harmful substances.

 
D
 
95. 

15.

Refined grain products contain only the

A) bran.

B) husk.

C) germ.

D) endosperm.

 
D
 
96. 

16.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of daily sodium intake guidelines?

A) The intake for most people should be <2300 mg

B) The intake for African-Americans should be <1500 mg

C) The intake should be limited to 10% of total mineral intake

D) The intake for most people >51 yrs of age should be <1500 mg

 
C
 
97. 

17.

Whole-grain flour contains all parts of the grain with the exception of the

A) bran.

B) husk.

C) germ.

D) endosperm.

 
B
 
98. 

18.

An empty-kcalorie food is one that contains

A) no kcalories.

B) an abundance of vitamins but little or no minerals.

C) an abundance of minerals but little or no vitamins.

D) energy and little or no protein, vitamins, or minerals.

 
D
 
99. 

19.

A food label ingredient list reads in the following order: Wheat flour, vegetable shortening, sugar, salt, and cornstarch. What item would be found in the smallest amount in the food?

A) Salt

B) Sugar

C) Cornstarch

D) Wheat flour

 
C
 
100. 

20.

Approximately how many milliliters constitute a fluid ounce?

A) 10

B) 20

C) 30

D) 40

 
C
 
101. 

1.

Jamie is a vegetarian who is trying to plan a healthy diet according to the USDA Food Patterns. Which of the following protein foods would be the best nutrient choices for one day?

A) 2 pieces bacon, 1/2 can tuna, 2 pieces bread

B) 1/2 cup pinto beans, 1/2 cup tofu, 2 tbsp peanut butter

C) 1/2 cup black beans, 2 tbsp peanut butter, 1 c spinach

D) 1 skinless chicken breast, 2 egg whites, meal replacement bar

 
C
 
102. 

2.

Which of the following are allowed in the diet of a lactovegetarian?

A) Plant foods only

B) Eggs and plant foods only

C) Meat, eggs, and plant foods only

D) Milk products and plant foods only

 
D
 
103. 

3.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a macrobiotic diet?

A) It excludes all hot and salty foods

B) It permits inclusion of many on-organic foods

C) It represents a way of life rather than just a way of eating

D) It emphasizes abundant amounts of fish, fruits, nuts, and seeds

 
C
 
104. 

4.

Which of the following foods' kcalories would be considered as part of one's discretionary kcalorie allowance?

A) Jam

B) Watermelon

C) Raw carrots

D) Brussels sprouts

 
A
 
105. 

5.

A food label that advertises the product as a "rich source of fiber" is an example of a

A) nutrient claim.

B) health claim.

C) weight reduction claim.

D) structure-function claim.

 
A
 
106. 

6.

All of the following are documented benefits for people following a vegetarian diet EXCEPT

A) lower body weights.

B) lower rates of anemia.

C) lower blood cholesterol levels.

D) lower rates of certain types of cancer.

 
B
 
107. 

7.

Which of the following is a feature of iron nutrition in vegetarians?

A) Vegetarians absorb iron more efficiently

B) Iron utilization is inhibited by the high zinc content in grains

C) The absorption of iron is low due to the high vitamin C intake

D) More iron deficiency is found in vegetarians than in people eating a mixed diet

 
A
 
108. 

8.

A person's customary intake of foods and beverages over time defines her or his

A) body weight.

B) eating pattern.

C) genetic predisposition.

D) risk for inherited diseases.

 
B
 
109. 

9.

On a food label, the "% Daily Value" table compares key nutrients per serving for a person consuming how many kcalories daily?

A) 1500

B) 2000

C) 2500

D) 3000

 
B
 
110. 

10.

The diet-planning principle that provides all the nutrients, fiber, and energy in amounts sufficient to maintain health is called

A) variety.

B) adequacy.

C) moderation.

D) kcalorie control.

 
B
 
111. 

11.

Which of the following is a characteristic of enriched grain products?

A) They have all of the added nutrients listed on the label

B) They have the fiber restored from the refining procedure

C) They have virtually all the nutrients restored from refining procedure

D) They have only 4 vitamins and 4 minerals added by the food manufacturer

 
A
 
112. 

12.

Tempeh is made from

A) soybeans.

B) any legume.

C) fermented leafy vegetables.

D) fermented yellow vegetables.

 
A
 
113. 

13.

Which of the following is an enrichment nutrient for grains?

A) Zinc

B) Folate

C) Protein

D) Calcium

 
B
 
114. 

14.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a macrobiotic diet?

A) It excludes all hot and salty foods

B) It permits inclusion of many on-organic foods

C) It represents a way of life rather than just a way of eating

D) It emphasizes abundant amounts of fish, fruits, nuts, and seeds

 
C
 
115. 

15.

The enrichment of grain products in the United States was initiated in the

A) 1840s.

B) 1890s.

C) 1940s.

D) 1990s.

 
C
 
116. 

16.

Which of the following nutrients would be supplied in much greater amounts from whole-grain bread versus enriched bread?

A) Zinc

B) Folate

C) Riboflavin

D) Thiamin

 
A
 
117. 

17.

Which of the following is a characteristic of structure-function claims on food labels?

A) They are allowed only for unprocessed food

B) They can be made without any FDA approval

C) They must conform to guidelines of the "A" list of health claims

D) They must state the name of the disease or symptom for which a benefit is claimed

 
B
 
118. 

18.

Approximately what minimum percentage of all grains consumed by a person should be whole grains?

A) 20

B) 35

C) 50

D) 100

 
C
 
119. 

19.

Which of the following is a healthy choice for protein in the USDA Food Patterns?

A) Nuts

B) Bacon

C) Baked potatoes

D) Sweet potatoes

 
A
 
120. 

20.

The addition of calcium to some orange juice products by food manufacturers is most properly termed nutrient

A) enrichment.

B) restoration.

C) fortification.

D) mineralization.
 
C
 
121. 

1.

What is the function of mucus in the stomach?

A) Emulsifies fats

B) Neutralizes stomach acid

C) Activates pepsinogen to pepsin

D) Protects stomach cells from gastric juices

 
D
 
122. 

2.

What vessel carries blood from the liver to the heart?

A) Aorta

B) Hepatic vein

C) Thoracic duct

D) Hepatic portal vein

 
B
 
123. 

3.

Which of the following is a function of the intestinal microvilli?

A) Secretion of bile salts

B) Secretion of digestive acid

C) Transport of nutrient molecules

D) Transport of pancreatic enzymes

 
C
 
124. 

4.

Which of the following is generally NOT digested but does stimulate intestinal muscle contractions?

A) Bile

B) Fiber

C) Starch

D) Amylase

 
B
 
125. 

5.

When ingested in large quantities, the sugar alternative sorbitol and the fat alternative olestra are known to induce

A) diarrhea.

B) vomiting.

C) pancreatitis.

D) celiac disease.

 
A
 
126. 

6.

What is the very first thing you should do if you suspect someone is choking on food?

A) Ask the person to speak

B) Perform the Heimlich maneuver

C) Strike the person sharply on the back

D) Attempt to dislodge the food with your fingers

 
A
 
127. 

7.

Where is the epiglottis located?

A) Throat

B) Bile duct

C) Pancreatic duct

D) Lower esophagus

 
A
 
128. 

8.

What is meant by the term "motility" in reference to the GI tract?

A) The efficiency of lymph transport

B) The ability of the GI tract muscles to move

C) The speed of gastric digestive juice release

D) The speed of pancreatic digestive juice release

 
B
 
129. 

9.

One of the signs of constipation is

A) increased thirst.

B) inability to digest fats.

C) less than 1 bowel movement per day.

D) fewer than 3 bowel movements per week.

 
D
 
130. 

10.

Microorganisms in food that are viable when consumed and that are beneficial to health are known as

A) probiotics.

B) prebiotics.

C) postbiotics.

D) zymobiotics.

 
A
 
131. 

11.

Which of the following describes the anatomy of the gastrointestinal tract?

A) A vat-like vessel

B) A rigid, solid tunnel

C) A flexible muscular tube

D) A firm, duct-like channel

 
C
 
132. 

12.

When nutrients are transported from intestinal epithelial cells to the vascular system, what organ is first to receive them?

A) Liver

B) Heart

C) Lungs

D) Kidneys
 
A
 
133. 

13.

Which of the following is a prominent feature of the expulsion of gas from the anus?

A) It is normal

B) It can usually be reduced by increasing fiber intake

C) It is usually worsened by consuming foods rich in fats

D) The gas expelled is composed mostly of sulfur dioxide

 
A
 
134. 

14.

A person with chronic GI bleeding is at risk for deficiency of

A) HCl.

B) iron.

C) bile.

D) protein.

 
B
 
135. 

15.

Which of the following is an important function of the intestinal villi crypts?

A) Synthesis of chylomicrons

B) Secretion of juices into the small intestine

C) Synthesis of fragments of fat for use by the colon

D) Transport of fat-soluble nutrients into the circulation
 
B
 
136. 

16.

What structure functions to prevent entrance of food into the trachea?

A) Tongue

B) Epiglottis

C) Cardiac sphincter

D) Trachea sphincter

 
B
 
137. 

17.

What is a zymogen?

A) An intestinal hormone

B) An inactive enzyme precursor

C) A defective pancreatic enzyme

D) An inflamed small intestinal outpocketing

 
B
 
138. 

18.

What is the function of bile?

A) Emulsifies fats

B) Initiates digestion of protein

C) Enhances absorption of complex carbohydrates

D) Protects the stomach and small intestine from the action of hydrochloric acid

 
A
 
139. 

19.

Which of the following is a function of sphincter muscles?

A) Control peristalsis

B) Grind large food particles

C) Secrete digestive juices into the GI tract

D) Control the passage of food through the GI tract

 
D
 
140. 

20.

Your cousin Miguel is extolling the virtues of his new dietary supplement. He says that it contains enzymes that will make him healthier, and he asks for your opinion. You assure him that the enzymes

A) will increase the digestibility of the foods he eats.

B) could likely interfere with the enzymes secreted by his pancreas.

C) could likely overload his gastrointestinal tract and lead to diarrhea.

D) are proteins and proteins are destroyed in the gastrointestinal tract.

 
D
 
141. 

1.

Which part of the GI tract contains highly acidic digestive juices?

A) Colon

B) Ileum

C) Stomach

D) Duodenum

 
C
 
142. 

2.

Choking occurs when a piece of food becomes firmly lodged in the

A) larynx.

B) trachea.

C) epiglottis.

D) esophagus.

 
B
 
143. 

3.

What is an important function of mucus?

A) Helps solubilize bile

B) Stabilizes pancreatic enzymes

C) Enhances absorption of vitamin B12

D) Protects the stomach walls from digestion

 
D
 
144. 

4.

People who have frequent, regular bouts of heartburn and indigestion have a medical condition known as

A) colitis.

B) watery stools.

C) lymphatic malabsorption.

D) gastroesophageal reflux.

 
D
 
145. 

5.

A person with chronic GI bleeding is at risk for deficiency of

A) HCl.

B) iron.

C) bile.

D) protein.

 
B
 
146. 

6.

What is umami?

A) The flavor of monosodium glutamate

B) The opening between the duodenum and jejunum

C) The intestinal enzyme that hydrolyzes fish proteins

D) An intestinal enzyme that hydrolyzes dietary nucleic acids

 
A
 
147. 

7.

When nutrients are transported from intestinal epithelial cells to the vascular system, what organ is first to receive them?

A) Liver

B) Heart

C) Lungs

D) Kidneys

 
A
 
148. 

8.

The purpose of bicarbonate in the digestive process is to

A) raise the pH of chyme.

B) lower the pH of chyme.

C) hydrolyze large peptides.

D) provide a little fizz in your life.

 
A
 
149. 

9.

What structure separates the colon from the small intestine?

A) Pylorus

B) Ileocecal valve

C) Gastric retainer

D) Rectal sphincter

 
B
 
150. 

10.

Which of the following nutrients requires the greatest time for digestion?

A) Fats

B) Water

C) Minerals

D) Carbohydrates

 
A
 
151. 

11.

What is one function of the gallbladder?

A) Stores bile

B) Produces bile

C) Reabsorbs water and salts

D) Performs enzymatic digestion
 
A
 
152. 

12.

What vessel carries blood from the liver to the heart?

A) Aorta

B) Hepatic vein

C) Thoracic duct

D) Hepatic portal vein

 
B
 
153. 

13.

Which of the following nutrients is most associated with increased production of intestinal gas?

A) Iron

B) Fats

C) Proteins

D) Carbohydrates

 
D
 
154. 

14.

What is the fate of any enzymes that are present in the foods we eat?

A) Hydrolyzed in the GI tract

B) Absorbed intact by the stomach

C) Absorbed intact by the small intestine

D) Passed through the GI tract and excreted in the stool

 
A
 
155. 

15.

In what population group are choking and vomiting most serious?

A) Infants

B) Teenagers

C) Elderly females

D) Obese

 
A
 
156. 

16.

A person with chronic diarrhea is at risk for which of the following?

A) Dehydration

B) Constipation

C) Peptic ulcers

D) Heimlich's disease

 
A
 
157. 

17.

Which of the following results from reverse peristalsis?

A) Gas

B) Choking

C) Vomiting

D) Diarrhea

 
C
 
158. 

18.

What is the normal pH of stomach juice?

A) 0.25-0.50

B) 1.5-1.7

C) 7.0-7.5

D) 9.5-9.75

 
B
 
159. 

19.

When consumed on a regular basis, which of the following foods promotes healthful changes in the microflora of the GI tract?

A) Fish

B) Yogurt

C) Poultry

D) Iron-rich foods

 
B
 
160. 

20.

Which of the following stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich juice?

A) Gastrin

B) Secretin

C) Glucagon

D) Gastric-inhibitory peptide

 
B
 
161. 

1.

Which of the following ingredients listed on food labels would be acceptable to the person who is highly intolerant to lactose in the diet?

A) Whey

B) Casein

C) Dextrins

D) Milk solids

 
C
 
162. 

2.

What is the predominant grain product in much of South and Central America?

A) Rice

B) Corn

C) Millet

D) Wheat

 
B
 
163. 

3.

Which of the following provides the most fiber?

A) 1 orange

B) 1/2 cup oatmeal

C) 1 cup split peas

D) 1 slice whole-wheat bread

 
C
 
164. 

4.

What is a normal range (mg/dL) for blood glucose?

A) 60-80

B) 70-100

C) 120-140

D) 140-180
 
B
 
165. 

5.

All of the following components are part of the chemical structure of aspartame EXCEPT

A) aspartic acid.

B) methyl group.

C) phenylalanine.

D) methanol group.

 
D
 
166. 

6.

When consumed in excess, which of the following is most likely to lead to diarrhea?

A) Fiber

B) Sucrose

C) Wheat starch

D) Sugar alcohols
 
D
 
167. 

7.

What is the composition of lactose?

A) Two glucose units

B) Two fructose units

C) One glucose and one fructose unit

D) One glucose and one galactose unit

 
D
 
168. 

8.

Which of the following is a feature of the condition hypoglycemia?

A) It is treated with insulin injections

B) It is aggravated by high-fiber foods

C) It is classified as a pre-diabetic condition

D) It occurs rarely in otherwise healthy people

 
D
 
169. 

9.

Why are hard cheeses lower in lactose than soft cheeses?

A) The lactose molecules bond to casein

B) More lactose is removed during manufacturing

C) The bacterial culture is selected to degrade more of the lactose

D) The lactose molecules condense to form a poorly digested oligosaccharide

 
B
 
170. 

10.

What is the principle carbohydrate of milk?

A) Lactose

B) Sucrose

C) Maltose
 
A
 
171. 

11.

What is the first organ to respond to an increase in blood glucose concentration?

A) Brain

B) Liver

C) Muscle

D) Pancreas

 
D
 
172. 

12.

Which of the following is more effective in preventing the formation of dental caries than restricting intake of sugary foods?

A) Regular tooth brushing and flossing

B) Consuming more raisins between meals

C) Substituting honey or raw sugar for table sugar

D) Spreading out the intake of snack foods throughout the day

 
A
 
173. 

13.

What is the primary absorption site for digestible carbohydrates?

A) Mouth

B) Stomach

C) Small intestine

D) Large intestine

 
C
 
174. 

14.

Which of the following recommendations will help to reduce the incidence of dental caries when the diet contains sugary foods?

A) Eat sugary foods separate from meals

B) Eat dried fruits in place of whole fruits

C) Sip a sugary soft drink slowly rather than quickly

D) Eat a sugary snack all at one time rather than in parts throughout the day

 
D
 
175. 

15.

Which of the following organs is NOT known to synthesize glycogen in any appreciable amounts?

A) Liver

B) Brain

C) Muscle

D) Pancreas

 
D
 
176. 

16.

What is the composition of sucrose?

A) Two fructose units

B) One glucose and one fructose unit

C) One glucose and one galactose unit

D) One galactose and one fructose unit

 
B
 
177. 

17.

Which of the following is an example of the difference between the chemical bonds in starch and those in cellulose?

A) Starch bonds are single

B) Starch bonds are fatty acids

C) Cellulose bonds release energy

D) Cellulose bonds are not hydrolyzed by human enzymes
 
D
 
178. 

18.

What is the approximate energy content (kcal/g) of most sugar alcohols?

A) 0

B) 2

C) 4

D) 7

 
B
 
179. 

19.

Food manufacturers prefer to use high-fructose corn syrup instead of sugar because sugar

A) is more soluble.

B) is more expensive.

C) retains more moisture.

D) contains less soluble fiber.

 
B
 
180. 

20.

Which of the following is a feature of lactose?

A) Its digestion begins in the mouth

B) It is found in various amounts in most animal foods

C) It is used as filler in one out of five prescription drugs

D) It causes frequent allergies in certain population groups

 
C
 
181. 

1.

When you are under physical stress, what hormone is released quickly to stimulate an increase in blood glucose concentration?

A) Insulin

B) Secretin

C) Glucogen

D) Epinephrine

 
D
 
182. 

2.

What nutrient has accounted for virtually all of the increase in kcal intake of people in the United States since the 1970s?

A) Fat

B) Protein

C) Alcohol

D) Carbohydrate

 
D
 
183. 

3.

When blood glucose concentration falls, what pancreatic hormone is secreted to stimulate release of stored glucose?

A) Insulin

B) Glucagon

C) Epinephrine

D) Cholecystokinin

 
B
 
184. 

4.

Honey contains

A) both fructose and lactose.

B) both glucose and galactose.

C) more kcalories per teaspoon than sucrose.

D) abundant amounts of calcium and iron.

 
C
 
185. 

5.

Which of the following is NOT a source of dietary carbohydrates?

A) Fish

B) Milk

C) Fruits

D) Legumes

 
A
 
186. 

6.

Which of the following is a prominent association between fiber intake and cancer?

A) Soluble fiber intake leads to activation of cancer-killing enzymes

B) Fiber intake slows the passage of carcinogens in the large intestines

C) Fiber supplements are better than dietary fiber at reducing colon cancer risk

D) An inverse relationship between fiber intake and prevalence of colon cancer was found in only two countries

 
A
 
187. 

7.

Which of the following is NOT a rich source of dietary starch?

A) Grains

B) Fruits

C) Tubers

D) Legumes

 
B
 
188. 

8.

Which of the following is a feature of kefir?

A) Provides GI tract benefits similar to yogurt

B) Serves as a substitute in people allergic to milk

C) Contains a combination of soluble and insoluble fiber

D) Must be restricted in people with genetic deficiency of intestinal sucrase or maltase

 
A
 
189. 

9.

A person eating lots of white bread, white rice, and ready-to-eat cereals would have a diet with a glycemic index that is

A) very low.

B) low.

C) moderate.

D) high.

 
D
 
190. 

10.

What is the composition of lactose?

A) Two glucose units

B) Two fructose units

C) One glucose and one fructose unit

D) One glucose and one galactose unit

 
D
 
191. 

11.

Why might it be unnecessary for most people to use the glycemic index to monitor carbohydrate intake?

A) Most people are not at risk of blood sugar abnormalities

B) Low-glycemic index foods tend to aggravate hypoglycemia in susceptible individuals

C) Most people exceed their requirements for protein, which limits the effectiveness of the glycemic index

D) Current dietary guidelines already include many choices that are low- and moderate-glycemic index foods

 
D
 
192. 

12.

Which of the following is NOT a common dietary source of carbohydrate?

A) Starch

B) Maltose

C) Cellulose

D) Glycogen

 
D
 
193. 

13.

Which of the following is a known indicator of prediabetes?

A) Insulin resistance

B) Severe hunger 4-5 hours after a meal

C) Carbohydrate intake as a percentage of total kcal

D) More than two episodes/week of hypoglycemia

 
A
 
194. 

14.

Approximately how many pounds of total sugars are consumed by the average U.S. resident each year?

A) 25

B) 65

C) 95

D) 190

 
C
 
195. 

15.

All of the following are features of honey EXCEPT

A) it is the preferred sweetener in infant foods.

B) it contains the same monosaccharides as table sugar.

C) a teaspoon provides more energy than a teaspoon of table sugar.

D) it contains small amounts of a few vitamins and minerals.

 
A
 
196. 

16.

Which of the following ingredients listed on food labels would be acceptable to the person who is highly intolerant to lactose in the diet?

A) Whey

B) Casein

C) Dextrins

D) Milk solids

 
C
 
197. 

17.

Which of the following plays a major role in the breakdown of certain types of dietary fiber in the large intestine?

A) Bacteria

B) Pancreas

C) Colonic cells

D) Small intestinal villus cell

 
A
 
198. 

18.

Which of the following is a feature of the condition hypoglycemia?

A) It is treated with insulin injections

B) It is aggravated by high-fiber foods

C) It is classified as a pre-diabetic condition

D) It occurs rarely in otherwise healthy people

 
D
 
199. 

19.

What is the primary organ that metabolizes fructose and galactose following absorption?

A) Liver

B) Pancreas

C) Skeletal muscle

D) Small intestines

 
A
 
200. 

20.

Why are hard cheeses lower in lactose than soft cheeses?

A) The lactose molecules bond to casein

B) More lactose is removed during manufacturing

C) The bacterial culture is selected to degrade more of the lactose

D) The lactose molecules condense to form a poorly digested oligosaccharide

 
B
 
201. 

1.

Which of the following is a typical response of the body to changes in blood glucose?

A) Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of insulin

B) Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of glucagon

C) Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of glycogen

D) Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of epinephrine

 
B
 
202. 

2.

Which of the following is a prominent association between fiber intake and cancer?

A) Soluble fiber intake leads to activation of cancer-killing enzymes

B) Fiber intake slows the passage of carcinogens in the large intestines

C) Fiber supplements are better than dietary fiber at reducing colon cancer risk

D) An inverse relationship between fiber intake and prevalence of colon cancer was found in only two countries

 
A
 
203. 

3.

Your nephew Jimmy, who is 10 years old, has told you that his body doesn't make insulin. He confides in you that he craves candy but was told by his parents that he can only eat sugar-free snacks. From which of the following conditions does Jimmy most likely suffer?

A) Hyperactivity

B) Type 1 diabetes

C) Type 2 diabetes

D) Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

 
B
 
204. 

4.

What is the staple grain of Canada, the United States, and Europe?

A) Oats

B) Rice

C) Corn

D) Wheat

 
D
 
205. 

5.

Which of the following is NOT a source of dietary carbohydrates?

A) Fish

B) Milk

C) Fruits

D) Legumes

 
A
 
206. 

6.

Why are hard cheeses lower in lactose than soft cheeses?

A) The lactose molecules bond to casein

B) More lactose is removed during manufacturing

C) The bacterial culture is selected to degrade more of the lactose

D) The lactose molecules condense to form a poorly digested oligosaccharide

 
B
 
207. 

7.

Which of the following artificial sweeteners has a composition similar to aspartame?

A) Neotame

B) Sucralose

C) Saccharin

D) Acesulfame-K

 
A
 
208. 

8.

Which of the following contains the least amount of fiber?

A) Apples

B) Prunes

C) Potatoes

D) White rice

 
D
 
209. 

9.

Which of the following describes the compound phytic acid?

A) Product of starch digestion

B) Nonnutrient component of plant seeds

C) Found in gastric juice and helps to lower pH of chyme

D) Found in high concentrations in the blood of people with diabetes

 
B
 
210. 

10.

Which of the following carbohydrates is present in only very small amounts in single form in the diet?

A) Lactose

B) Glucose

C) Fructose

D) Galactose

 
D
 
211. 

11.

In what organ is most of the body's glycogen found?

A) Liver

B) Muscles

C) Kidneys

D) Intestines

 
B
 
212. 

12.

What is the meaning of a resistant starch?

A) A fiber that escapes digestion in the small intestine

B) A disaccharide that passes completely through the GI tract intact

C) An insoluble fiber that is only partly degraded by gastric acid and pepsin

D) A complex formed between phytic acid and cellulose that inhibits hydrolysis of digestible polysaccharides

 
A
 
213. 

13.

At rest, the typical body stores of glycogen can provide energy for a maximum of about

A) 4 hours.

B) 1 day.

C) 3 days.

D) 1 week.

 
B
 
214. 

14.

A person with a fasting blood glucose level of 101 mg/dL would be classified as

A) normal.

B) prediabetic.

C) a type 1 diabetic.

D) a type 2 diabetic.

 
B
 
215. 

16.

When blood glucose concentration falls, what pancreatic hormone is secreted to stimulate release of stored glucose?

A) Insulin

B) Glucagon

C) Epinephrine

D) Cholecystokinin

 
B
 
216. 

17.

Which of the following recommendations will help to reduce the incidence of dental caries when the diet contains sugary foods?

A) Eat sugary foods separate from meals

B) Eat dried fruits in place of whole fruits

C) Sip a sugary soft drink slowly rather than quickly

D) Eat a sugary snack all at one time rather than in parts throughout the day

 
D
 
217. 

18.

The process by which an amino acid is used to make glucose is termed

A) glycation.

B) ketogenesis.

C) protein sparing.

D) gluconeogenesis.

 
D
 
218. 

19.

Which of the following is a feature of glycogen?

A) It is found in plants

B) It is important as a dietary nutrient

C) It is almost absent from animal meats

D) It plays an insignificant role in the body

 
C
 
219. 

15.

Which of the following is a feature of the condition hypoglycemia?

A) It is treated with insulin injections

B) It is aggravated by high-fiber foods

C) It is classified as a pre-diabetic condition

D) It occurs rarely in otherwise healthy people

 
D
 
220. 

20.

When consumed in excess, which of the following is most likely to lead to diarrhea?

A) Fiber

B) Sucrose

C) Wheat starch

D) Sugar alcohols

 
D
 
221. 

1.

Which of the following is characteristic of the lipase enzymes?

A) Gastric lipase plays a significant role in fat digestion in adults

B) Intestinal mucosal lipase is responsible for most dietary fat digestion

C) Salivary gland lipase (lingual lipase) plays an active role in fat digestion in infants

D) Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes most dietary triglycerides completely to glycerol and free fatty acids

 
C
 
222. 

2.

Which of the following would be least effective at preventing oxidation of the polyunsaturated fatty acids in processed foods?

A) Refrigeration

B) Addition of BHT

C) Partial hydrogenation

D) Addition of phosphorus
 
D
 
223. 

3.

Which of the following is descriptive of fatty acid configuration?

A) A cis-fatty acid has an extended, linear formation

B) A trans-fatty acid has a folded, U-shape formation

C) Trans-fatty acids are made only from polyunsaturated fats

D) Naturally occurring trans-fatty acids are found in dairy products

 
D
 
224. 

4.

Although eating fish supports heart health and fish provides many vitamins and minerals, it is notably poor in

A) iron.

B) protein.

C) unsaturated fats.

D) omega-3 fatty acids.

 
A
 
225. 

5.

How many double bonds are present in stearic acid?

A) 0

B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

 
A
 
226. 

6.

Which of the following is a characteristic of egg nutrition?

A) Eggs are high in both cholesterol and saturated fat

B) High omega-3 fat eggs are now available by prescription only

C) Although it is high in cholesterol, the egg is low in saturated fat

D) Even in people with a healthy lipid profile, consumption of one egg/day is detrimental

 
C
 
227. 

7.

Lipids that are solid at room temperature are known as

A) oils.

B) fats.

C) omegas.

D) glycerols.

 
B
 
228. 

8.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the lipid content of livestock?

A) The meat from grass-fed animals is similar in composition to soy protein

B) Grass-fed animals contain more omega-3 fats in the meat than grain-fed animals

C) Grain-fed animals contain more polyunsaturated fatty acids in the meat compared with grass-fed animals

D) Grain-fed animals contain lower concentrations of fat in the meat compared with grass-fed animals
 
B
 
229. 

9.

Your roommate Bob has just come back from the doctor, where he was subjected to a blood lipid profile analysis. The doctor recommended he make dietary changes because the cholesterol results put him at increased risk for cardiovascular disease. Which of the following results is consistent with the diagnosis?

A) Low LDL and high HDL

B) Low HDL and high LDL

C) Low DLD and high DHD

D) Low LDH and low HDL

 
B
 
230. 

10.

A high risk of heart attack correlates with high blood levels of

A) free fatty acids.

B) high-density lipoproteins.

C) low-density lipoproteins.

D) very low-density lipoproteins.

 
C
 
231. 

11.

Which of the following characteristics are shared by cholesterol and lecithin?

A) Both are sterols

B) Both are phospholipids

C) Both are synthesized in the body

D) Both are essential dietary nutrients

 
C
 
232. 

12.

The oils found in walnuts, soybeans, flaxseed, and wheat germ represent a good source of preformed

A) eicosanoids.

B) linolenic acid.

C) docosahexaenoic acid.

D) eicosapentaenoic acid.

 
B
 
233. 

13.

Which of the following describes a fatty acid that has one double bond?

A) Saturated

B) Hydrogenated

C) Monounsaturated

D) Polyunsaturated

 
C
 
234. 

14.

Approximately how many grams of fat would be contained in an 800-kcalorie meal that provides 50% of the energy from carbohydrate, 20% from protein, and the remainder from fat?

A) 15

B) 22

C) 27

D) 35

 
C
 
235. 

15.

A common feature of the plant sterols is they

A) raise LDL and lower HDL.

B) inhibit absorption of dietary cholesterol.

C) inhibit absorption of "bad" cholesterol.

D) enhance absorption of omega-3 fatty acids.

 
B
 
236. 

16.

Which of the following is a characteristic of lipids?

A) A quick way to spoil fats is by exposure to carbon dioxide

B) Typically, the shorter the carbon chain, the firmer the fat at 75°

C) Corn and sunflower oils are more prone to spoilage than palm kernel oil

D) Palm oil and coconut oil are very liquid due to their longer carbon chains

 
C
 
237. 

17.

In the process of fat hydrogenation, hydrogen atoms are added to which part of the molecule?

A) Oxygen

B) Carbon

C) Glycerol

D) Other hydrogens

 
B
 
238. 

18.

Which of the following is an omega-3 fat?

A) Acetic acid

B) Palmitic acid

C) Linoleic acid

D) Docosahexaenoic acid

 
D
 
239. 

19.

Which of the following is a characteristic of cholesterol?

A) It is absorbed directly into the blood

B) It is a precursor for bile and vitamin D synthesis

C) It is not formed in the body when provided by the diet

D) It is found in abundance in tropical fats such as palm oil

 
B
 
240. 

20.

A person wishing to increase consumption of polyunsaturated fats should choose

A) coconut oil.

B) beef products.

C) vegetable oils.

D) dairy products.

 
C
 
241. 

1.

Which of the following foods provide(s) essential fatty acids?

A) Fish only

B) Beef only

C) Plants only

D) Fish, beef, and plants

 
D
 
242. 

2.

What tissue contains special receptors for removing low-density lipoproteins from the circulation?

A) Liver

B) Adipose

C) Arterial walls

D) Skeletal muscle

 
A
 
243. 

3.

Which of the following is considered a major source of polyunsaturated fat?

A) Corn oil

B) Palm oil

C) Peanut oil

D) Chicken fat

 
A
 
244. 

4.

Which of the following is a feature of nut consumption and improved cardiovascular health?

A) The benefit is unrelated to the phytochemical content

B) The benefit is unrelated to changes in LDL concentration

C) The benefit is found only from ingestion of a few types of nuts

D) The benefit may be related, in part, to the high content of monounsaturated fats and low content of saturated fats

 
D
 
245. 

5.

Ronnie eats a fairly balanced diet, but wants to include a good source of omega-3 fats. Which of the following should be your recommendation?

A) Eggs

B) Salmon

C) Low-fat cheeses

D) Lean chicken breast

 
B
 
246. 

6.

Studies show that regular consumption of fatty fish leads to

A) lower blood pressure.

B) higher blood cholesterol.

C) greater tendency of the blood to clot.

D) decreased storage of omega-3 fatty acids.

 
A
 
247. 

7.

Which of the following is a drawback of olestra consumption?

A) It yields 9 kcalories per gram

B) It imparts off-flavors to foods

C) It raises blood glucose levels

D) It inhibits absorption of vitamin E

 
D
 
248. 

8.

Which of the following is known as a tropical oil?

A) Coconut oil

B) Flaxseed oil

C) Safflower oil

D) Conjugated linoleic acid

 
A
 
249. 

9.

Which of the following is a factor that determines the hardness of a fat at a given temperature?

A) Origin of the fat

B) Degree of saturation

C) Number of acid groups

D) Number of oxygen atoms

 
B
 
250. 

10.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the blood cholesterol level?

A) The desirable upper range is 250 mg per 100 mL

B) It can be reduced by increasing dietary intake of insoluble fiber

C) It can be lowered by increasing dietary intake of trans-fat

D) It can be lowered more effectively by reducing dietary intake of saturated fat than of cholesterol
 
D
 
251. 

11.

Which of the following is a characteristic of cholesterol?

A) It is absorbed directly into the blood

B) It is a precursor for bile and vitamin D synthesis

C) It is not formed in the body when provided by the diet

D) It is found in abundance in tropical fats such as palm oil

 
B
 
252. 

12.

How is soluble fiber in the diet thought to help lower blood cholesterol level?

A) It denatures cholesterol in the stomach

B) It hydrolyzes cholesterol in the intestinal tract

C) It traps cholesterol in the intestinal tract and thus inhibits its absorption

D) It enhances excretion of bile leading to increased cholesterol turnover

 
D
 
253. 

13.

Which of the following is a characteristic of eggs in nutrition?

A) Consumption of one egg per day by most people is not considered detrimental

B) The omega-3 fatty acid content of eggs is increased by feeding hens more coconut oil

C) The amount of cholesterol in one egg is about the same as in one serving of ice cream

D) The cholesterol is found in approximately equal amounts in the yolk and the white (albumin)

 
A
 
254. 

14.

Which of the following is a feature of adipose cell lipoprotein lipase?

A) The enzyme's activity is reduced by high-fat diets

B) The enzyme's activity is increased by signals from epinephrine and glucagon

C) The enzyme works to promote uptake of circulating triglycerides into storage triglycerides

D) The enzyme is involved in release of free fatty acids from stored triglyceride into the bloodstream

 
C
 
255. 

15.

After a meal, most of the fat that eventually empties into the blood is in the form of particles known as

A) micelles.

B) chylomicrons.

C) low-density lipoproteins.

D) very-low-density lipoproteins.

 
B
 
256. 

16.

Which of the following is an omega-3 fat?

A) Acetic acid

B) Palmitic acid

C) Linoleic acid

D) Docosahexaenoic acid

 
D
 
257. 

17.

How many hydrogen atoms are attached to each carbon adjacent to a double bond?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 4

D) 6

 
A
 
258. 

18.

You and your friend John are planning a college graduation party and you want to include healthy snack alternatives. You select fruit, veggies, low-fat dips, low-fat cheeses, whole-wheat crackers, and low-fat potato chips. John says he has heard about the fat replacer olestra in the potato chips and asks you how it works. You reply that olestra

A) slows the pancreas's release of lipase enzyme.

B) consists of tight protein-binding molecules that replace the fat molecules usually present in potato chips.

C) contains a fat-like substance that the body's enzymes can't break down and therefore cannot be absorbed.

D) is first subjected to radiation exposure to desaturate the bonds within the fat molecules, which reduces the kcalorie content.

 
C
 
259. 

19.

What type of fatty acid is found in high amounts in olive oil?

A) Saturated

B) Monounsaturated

C) Polyunsaturated

D) Partially hydrogenated

 
B
 
260. 

20.

Which of the following is a feature of essential fatty acid deficiency?

A) It is very rare

B) It is seen chiefly in Native Americans

C) The most common symptoms include insulin resistance and pancreatitis

D) Most diets in the United States and Canada are deficient in one or both essential fatty acids

 
A
 
261. 
1. Which of the following elements is found in certain amino acids? A) Iron
B) Sulfur
C) Calcium
D) Potassium
 
D
 
262. 

2.

Your college dormitory roommate, James, told you that he's had anemia for quite some time and that it's from having abnormally-shaped hemoglobin. What type of anemia does James have?

A) Sickle-cell anemia

B) Macrocytic anemia

C) Iron-deficiency anemia

D) Low oxygen-carrying anemia

 
A
 
263. 

3.

Which of the following is NOT contained in an amino acid?

A) An acid group

B) An amino group

C) An aldehyde group

D) A central carbon atom

 
C
 
264. 

Incorrect

4.

Gelatin is a poor-quality protein because it

A) lacks tryptophan.

B) lacks methionine.

C) is poorly digested.

D) is poorly absorbed.

 
A
 
265. 

5.

Your father, who has a high blood ammonia concentration, most likely has a poorly functioning

A) liver.

B) spleen.

C) kidney.

D) intestinal tract.

 
A
 
266. 
6.
What is the usual state of nitrogen balance for healthy infants, children, and pregnant women?
A) Equilibrium
B) Metabolic
C) Positive
D) Negative
 
C
 
267. 
7.
Which of the following is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another?
A) The side group
B) The central carbon atom
C) The number of oxygen atoms
D) The number of nitrogen atoms
 
A
 
268. 
8.
Which of the following is a feature of an essential amino acid?
A) It is not necessary in the diet
B) It must be supplied by the diet
C) It can be made from fat in the body
D) It can be made from glucose in the body
 
B
 
269. 
9.
If the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the course of action?
A) Body cells will synthesize it
B) Protein synthesis will be limited
C) Health will not be affected as long as other nutrients are adequate
D) Proteins will be made but they will lack that particular amino acid
 
B
 
270. 
10.
The study of how food interacts with genes is known as
A) nutritional genomics.
B) chromosomals.
C) nucleotide expression.
D) mutagenic expression.
 
A
 
271. 
11.
What is the chief function of pepsin?
A) Emulsifies dietary proteins
B) Activates hydrochloric acid
C) Activates pancreatic proteases
D) Cleaves proteins into smaller polypeptides
 
D
 
272. 
12.
Which of the following is a feature of homocysteine?
A) It is found only in animal foods
B) It is a risk factor for osteoporosis
C) It is increased in the blood of coffee drinkers
D) It is increased in the blood of vitamin C-deficient people
 
C
 
273. 
13.
The process whereby messenger RNA is made from a DNA template is
A) expression.
B) sequencing.
C) transcription.
D) ribosome assembly.
 
C
 
274. 
14.
Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics of phenylketonuria?
A) It is a single-gene disorder
B) It leads to a dietary requirement for tyrosine
C) It is treated by total elimination of dietary phenylalanine
D) It results in mental retardation unless treatment is started in infancy
 
C
 
275. 
15.
After digestion of proteins, what products are absorbed into the circulation?
A) Free amino acids only
B) Free amino acids and oligopeptides
C) Free amino acids and dipeptides only
D) Free amino acids, and a few dipeptides and tripeptides
 
D
 
276. 
16.
What is the composition of a tripeptide?
A) One amino acid with three carbons
B) Three amino acids bonded together
C) One amino acid with three acid groups
D) Three small protein chains bonded together
 
B
 
277. 
17.
All of the following assumptions are made by the committee in setting the RDA for protein EXCEPT
A) adequate kcalories will be consumed.
B) protein eaten will be of mixed quality.
C) the fat content of the diet will be high.
D) other nutrients in the diet will be adequate.
 
C
 
278. 
18.
Which of the following is a feature of the protein RDA?
A) The recommendations are generous
B) It is highest proportionately for adult males
C) It is established at 8 grams per kilogram of ideal body weight
D) An assumption is made that dietary protein is from animal sources only
 
A
 
279. 
19.
Which of the following proteins inactivates foreign bacteria and viruses?
A) Enzymes
B) Collagen
C) Hormones
D) Antibodies
 
D
 
280. 
20.
The following amino acids are linked together: glycine-lysine-valine. This compound is a
A) dipeptide.
B) tripeptide.
C) polypeptide.
D) oligopeptide.
 
B
 
281. 
1.
Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics of phenylketonuria?
A) It is a single-gene disorder
B) It leads to a dietary requirement for tyrosine
C) It is treated by total elimination of dietary phenylalanine
D) It results in mental retardation unless treatment is started in infancy
 
C
 
282. 
2.
Which of the following is a feature of protein nutrition?
A) Protein in body tissues is preserved fairly well on low-energy diets
B) The protein RDA assumes that dietary protein is from a mix of low- and high-quality sources
C) Many people in the United States and Canada consume somewhat less protein than is needed
D) Athletes in training benefit from increasing their protein energy intake to 45-50% of total daily energy
 
B
 
283. 
3.
What is the percentage of total energy derived from protein in a diet containing 50 grams of protein and 2000 kcalories?
A) 2.5
B) 5
C) 10
D) 20
 
C
 
284. 
4.
After digestion of proteins, what products are absorbed into the circulation?
A) Free amino acids only
B) Free amino acids and oligopeptides
C) Free amino acids and dipeptides only
D) Free amino acids, and a few dipeptides and tripeptides
 
D
 
285. 
5.
What is the structure of an enzyme?
A) Lipid
B) Protein
C) Nucleic acid
D) Carbohydrate
 
B
 
286. 
6.
Which of the following is a consequence of excess protein intake?
A) Decreased excretion of calcium
B) Decreased size of the liver and kidneys
C) Increased production and excretion of urea
D) Increased protein storage by the liver and kidneys
 
C
 
287. 
7.
Which of the following is an assumption made in the formulation of the RDA for protein?
A) Dietary protein is of high quality only
B) Dietary protein is of animal origin only
C) Dietary carbohydrate and fat intakes are adequate
D) Dietary protein should represent 12% of total energy
 
C
 
288. 
8.
The body's usual response to detection of antigens is to synthesize
A) mutations.
B) antibodies.
C) erythrocytes.
D) whey protein.
 
B
 
289. 
9.
What dispensable amino acid becomes essential in people with PKU?
A) Glycine
B) Tyrosine
C) Arginine
D) Glutamine
 
B
 
290. 
10.
What is the percent digestibility of most animal proteins?
A) 50-65
B) 70-75
C) 80-85
D) 90-99
 
D
 
291. 
11.
Any of the following can be used by the body for the synthesis of a nonessential amino acid EXCEPT
A) a fragment of fat.
B) an essential mineral.
C) an essential amino acid.
D) a fragment of carbohydrate.
 
B
 
292. 
12.
What is opsin?
A) An antigen
B) An antibody
C) A light-sensitive protein
D) A blood transport protein
 
C
 
293. 
13.
The body's need for water increases on a diet high in
A) protein.
B) carbohydrate.
C) saturated fat.
D) unsaturated fat.
 
A
 
294. 
14.
What is a "limiting" amino acid in a protein?
A) A nonessential amino acid present in high amounts, which inhibits protein synthesis
B) An amino acid of the wrong structure to be utilized for protein synthesis efficiently
C) An essential amino acid present in insufficient quantity for body protein synthesis to take place
D) An amino acid that limits the absorption of other essential amino acids by competing with them for transport sites within the GI tract
 
C
 
295. 
15.
A dispensable amino acid is one that
A) is not needed by the body.
B) can be synthesized by the body.
C) can be used to synthesize an indispensable amino acid.
D) cannot be synthesized by the body because of a genetic defect.
 
B
 
296. 
16.
What is the usual state of nitrogen balance for healthy infants, children, and pregnant women?
A) Equilibrium
B) Metabolic
C) Positive
D) Negative
 
C
 
297. 
17.
Jim, a college baseball player, tells you that he has started to take glutamine supplements. How would you advise him?
A) As long as he keeps the dose under 10 g/day, the benefits outweigh the costs
B) Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking alanine supplements instead
C) Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking tryptophan supplements instead
D) Since single amino acids do not occur naturally in foods, they offer no benefit to the body and may even be harmful
 
D
 
298. 
18.
Which of the following is NOT contained in an amino acid?
A) An acid group
B) An amino group
C) An aldehyde group
D) A central carbon atom
 
C
 
299. 
19.
What is the most likely reason for a person to have abnormally high blood ammonia levels?
A) Liver dysfunction
B) Kidney dysfunction
C) Protein intake twice the RDA
D) Protein intake one-tenth the RDA
 
A
 
300. 
20.
How many different kinds of amino acids make up proteins?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 14
D) 20
 
D
 
301. 
1.
Which of the following is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another?
A) The side group
B) The central carbon atom
C) The number of oxygen atoms
D) The number of nitrogen atoms
 
A
 
302. 
2.
What amino acid is used to synthesize the neurotransmitter serotonin and the vitamin niacin?
A) Glycine
B) Tyrosine
C) Methionine
D) Tryptophan
 
D
 
303. 
3.
In the study of protein nutrition, what term describes the amount of amino acids absorbed from a given amount of protein consumed?
A) Digestibility
B) Completeness
C) Complementary index
D) Comparative equivalence
 
A
 
304. 
4.
If a person consumes 65 grams of protein and a total of 2700 kcalories per day, approximately what percentage of energy would be derived from protein?
A) 7
B) 10
C) 14
D) 20
 
B
 
305. 
5.
Approximately how many different amino acids are used in the synthesis of body proteins?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 35
 
C
 
306. 
6.
The study of how food interacts with genes is known as
A) nutritional genomics.
B) chromosomals.
C) nucleotide expression.
D) mutagenic expression.
 
A
 
307. 
7.
What dispensable amino acid becomes essential in people with PKU?
A) Glycine
B) Tyrosine
C) Arginine
D) Glutamine
 
B
 
308. 
8.
Which of the following describes the structure of an antibody?
A) Tripeptide
B) Small nucleic acid
C) Huge protein molecule
D) Large peptide molecule
 
C
 
309. 
9.
The body's need for water increases on a diet high in
A) protein.
B) carbohydrate.
C) saturated fat.
D) unsaturated fat.
 
A
 
310. 
10.
Jim, a college baseball player, tells you that he has started to take glutamine supplements. How would you advise him?
A) As long as he keeps the dose under 10 g/day, the benefits outweigh the costs
B) Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking alanine supplements instead
C) Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking tryptophan supplements instead
D) Since single amino acids do not occur naturally in foods, they offer no benefit to the body and may even be harmful
 
D
 
311. 
11.
Which of the following is a characteristic of hormones?
A) Inactivate bacteria
B) Act as messenger molecules
C) Coordinate visual response
D) Act as buffers in the bloodstream
 
B
 
312. 
12.
What is the usual fate of orally ingested enzyme supplements?
A) Digested by gastrointestinal proteases
B) Rapidly degraded by salivary secretions
C) Mostly absorbed in original form from the stomach
D) Completely absorbed in original form from the jejunum
 
A
 
313. 
13.
What digestive enzyme would be most affected in people who are unable to produce hydrochloric acid?
A) Pepsin
B) Transaminase
C) Pancreatic protease
D) Intestinal peptidase
 
A
 
314. 
14.
All of the following assumptions are made by the committee in setting the RDA for protein EXCEPT
A) adequate kcalories will be consumed.
B) protein eaten will be of mixed quality.
C) the fat content of the diet will be high.
D) other nutrients in the diet will be adequate.
 
C
 
315. 
15.
Which of the following describes the structure of pepsin?
A) Lipid
B) Protein
C) Nucleic acid
D) Carbohydrate
 
B
 
316. 
16.
Relative to animal proteins, which of the following amino acids is present in lesser amounts in proteins of legumes?
A) Alanine
B) Isoleucine
C) Tryptophan
D) Glutamic acid
 
C
 
317. 
17.
What process results in the hardening of an egg when it is exposed to heat?
A) Solidification
B) Denaturation
C) Condensation
D) Protein interaction
 
B
 
318. 
18.
Which of the following proteins inactivates foreign bacteria and viruses?
A) Enzymes
B) Collagen
C) Hormones
D) Antibodies
 
D
 
319. 
19.
The body's amino acid pool consists of
A) essential amino acids only.
B) endogenous amino acids only.
C) nonessential amino acids only.
D) both essential and nonessential amino acids.
 
D
 
320. 
20.
What is a ribosome?
A) A template for protein synthesis
B) A hard knot of subcutaneous protein mass
C) A structure upon which proteins are assembled
D) An antibody synthesized by specialized immune cells
 
C
 
321. 
1.
A feature of catabolic reactions is that they
A) involve release of energy.
B) occur only in mitochondria.
C) involve consumption of energy.
D) occur only during loss of body weight.
 
A
 
322. 
2.
Which of the following is a consequence of alcohol intake?
A) The MEOS is suppressed
B) Homocysteine production is reduced
C) Water content of the blood is increased
D) Antidiuretic hormone production is suppressed
 
D
 
323. 
3.
What is the primary organ that oxidizes alcohol?
A) Brain
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Digestive tract
 
B
 
324. 
4.
Approximately how many ATP molecules are synthesized from the complete oxidation of a molecule of palmitic acid?
A) 9
B) 27
C) 98
D) 129
 
D
 
325. 
5.
What term is specific to reactions in which simple compounds are combined into more complex molecules?
A) Anabolic
B) Catabolic
C) Ergogenic
D) Gluconeogenic
 
A
 
326. 
6.
Which of the following is characteristic of alcohol absorption?
A) It is slowed when the stomach is full of food
B) It is increased when high-fat snacks are eaten
C) It is increased when carbohydrate snacks are eaten
D) It is lower in women than in men of the same body weight
 
A
 
327. 
7.
Which of the following is NOT an aspect of glycolysis?
A) It is irreversible
B) It generates ATP
C) It occurs in the absence of oxygen
D) It generates two molecules of pyruvate for each molecule of glucose
 
A
 
328. 
8.
Which of the following defines a moderate level of alcohol intake per day for the average-sized man?
A) Up to 1 drink
B) Up to 2 drinks
C) Up to 3 drinks
D) Up to 5 drinks
 
B
 
329. 
9.
If a normal person expends 1200 kcalories while at rest, approximately how many are used by the brain?
A) 40
B) 100
C) 200
D) 300
 
D
 
330. 
10.
Which of the following reactions is an example of an anabolic reaction?
A) Pyruvate synthesis from glucose
B) Acetyl CoA synthesis from cholesterol
C) Carbon dioxide synthesis from citric acid
D) Cholesterol synthesis from acetyl CoA molecules
 
D
 
331. 
11.
An aerobic reaction is one that requires
A) alcohol.
B) oxygen.
C) nitrogen.
D) ammonia.
 
B
 
332. 
12.
If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose?
A) Fatty acids
B) Acetyl CoA
C) Amino acids
D) Carbon dioxide
 
C
 
333. 
13.
Which of the following is a feature of low-carbohydrate diets?
A) Body glycogen stores are preserved
B) Ketosis is evident within the first 1-2 days
C) In the first few days, body fat loss exceeds water loss
D) Overall body fat losses are about the same as with other diets
 
D
 
334. 
14.
Which of the following accounts for the higher energy density of a fatty acid compared with the other energy-yielding nutrients?
A) Fatty acids have a lower percentage of hydrogen-carbon bonds
B) Fatty acids have a greater percentage of hydrogen-carbon bonds
C) Other energy-yielding nutrients have a lower percentage of oxygen-carbon bonds
D) Other energy-yielding nutrients undergo fewer metabolic reactions, thereby lowering the energy yield
 
B
 
335. 
15.
The metabolism of alcohol begins in the
A) liver.
B) brain.
C) stomach.
D) intestines.
 
C
 
336. 
16.
Excess alcohol intake leads to a reduction in the synthesis rate of
A) liver fat.
B) liver glucose.
C) ketone bodies.
D) acetyl CoA molecules.
 
B
 
337. 
17.
Production of excessive amounts of acetyl CoA molecules leads to the synthesis of
A) fatty acids only.
B) fatty acids and glucose only.
C) fatty acids and fructose only.
D) fatty acids, glucose, and amino acids.
 
A
 
338. 
18.
Which of the following is a feature of the electron transport chain?
A) It captures energy in the high-energy bonds of ATP
B) It pumps carbon dioxide across the mitochondrial membrane
C) It is composed of a series of coenzymes that transfer electrons up a concentration gradient
D) It combines oxygen from carbon dioxide with hydrogen generated from the splitting of water
 
A
 
339. 
19.
Which of the following is a feature of aerobic metabolism?
A) Little or no oxygen is consumed
B) Lactic acid is a major byproduct
C) Energy is produced more slowly than in anaerobic metabolism
D) Pyruvate is converted to glucose by reverse glycolysis to yield a net of 2 ATPs
 
C
 
340. 
20.
Which of the following compounds CANNOT be formed from fatty acids?
A) Ketones
B) Glucose
C) Acetyl CoA
D) Carbon dioxide
 
B
 
341. 
1.
Which of the following controls a person's maximum rate of alcohol catabolism?
A) Breathing rate
B) Activity of alcohol dehydrogenase
C) Gastric acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
D) Activity of the electron transport chain
 
B
 
342. 
2.
Which of the following is a consequence of alcohol intake?
A) The MEOS is suppressed
B) Homocysteine production is reduced
C) Water content of the blood is increased
D) Antidiuretic hormone production is suppressed
 
D
 
343. 
3.
How soon would death occur from starvation if the body was unable to shift to a state of ketosis?
A) Within 3 weeks
B) Less than 2 weeks
C) Between 5 and 6 weeks
D) Between 2 and 3 months
 
A
 
344. 
4.
Which of the following is NOT an aspect of glycolysis?
A) It is irreversible
B) It generates ATP
C) It occurs in the absence of oxygen
D) It generates two molecules of pyruvate for each molecule of glucose
 
A
 
345. 
5.
The formation of glycogen by the liver cell is an example of
A) oxidation.
B) glycolysis.
C) anabolism.
D) catabolism.
 
C
 
346. 
6.
Which of the following metabolic reactions occurs when a cell uses energy?
A) ATP gains a phosphate group and becomes ADP
B) ADP gains a phosphate group and becomes ATP
C) ATP releases a phosphate group and becomes ADP
D) ADP releases a phosphate group and becomes ATP
 
C
 
347. 
7.
Which of the following is true regarding alcoholic beverages containing caffeine?
A) The FDA has banned their sales
B) The time to intoxication is slowed by the caffeine
C) The presence of caffeine slows down consumption
D) The caffeine slows the development of alcohol-induced impairment
 
A
 
348. 
8.
Of the total amount of carbohydrate energy consumed by the body, approximately what percentage is used by the brain and nerve cells?
A) 10
B) 30
C) 50
D) 90
 
C
 
349. 
9.
Which of the following reactions is an example of an anabolic reaction?
A) Pyruvate synthesis from glucose
B) Acetyl CoA synthesis from cholesterol
C) Carbon dioxide synthesis from citric acid
D) Cholesterol synthesis from acetyl CoA molecules
 
D
 
350. 
10.
What is the percentage of ethanol in 120-proof scotch whiskey?
A) 5
B) 30
C) 60
D) 95
 
C
 
351. 
11.
When energy-yielding nutrients are consumed in excess, which one(s) can lead to storage of fat?
A) Fat only
B) Carbohydrate only
C) Fat and carbohydrate only
D) Fat, carbohydrate, and protein
 
D
 
352. 
12.
What is the immediate fate of excess dietary protein in the body?
A) Stored
B) Reduced
C) Oxidized
D) Deaminated
 
D
 
353. 
13.
What minimum concentration of alcohol in the blood is usually fatal?
A) 0.5%
B) 1%
C) 5%
D) 50%
 
A
 
354. 
14.
Which of the following defines a moderate level of alcohol intake per day for the average-sized man?
A) Up to 1 drink
B) Up to 2 drinks
C) Up to 3 drinks
D) Up to 5 drinks
 
B
 
355. 
15.
How does excess carbohydrate intake contribute to obesity?
A) It is efficiently converted to storage fat
B) It spares oxidation of body fat and dietary fat
C) It stimulates glucagon release, resulting in inhibition of fatty acid oxidation
D) It stimulates pancreatic lipase secretion, which results in higher dietary fat absorption
 
B
 
356. 
16.
In addition to energy, what are the principal end products of cellular oxidation of carbohydrates?
A) Water and carbon dioxide
B) Carbon, hydrogen, and urea
C) Indigestible fiber and nitrogen
D) Monosaccharides and amino acids
 
A
 
357. 
17.
Where do the TCA cycle reactions take place?
A) Golgi
B) Endoplasmic reticulum
C) Nucleus of the mitochondria
D) Inner compartment of the mitochondria
 
D
 
358. 
18.
Which of the following is(are) best suited for slowing alcohol absorption?
A) Not eating
B) Protein snacks
C) Caffeinated drinks
D) Carbohydrate snacks
 
D
 
359. 
19.
If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose?
A) Fatty acids
B) Acetyl CoA
C) Amino acids
D) Carbon dioxide
 
C
 
360. 
20.
What is the minimum blood alcohol percentage that defines legal drunkenness in most states?
A) 0.10
B) 0.20
C) 0.30
D) 0.40
 
A
 
361. 
1.
Which of the following is true regarding alcoholic beverages containing caffeine?
A) The FDA has banned their sales
B) The time to intoxication is slowed by the caffeine
C) The presence of caffeine slows down consumption
D) The caffeine slows the development of alcohol-induced impairment
 
A
 
362. 
2.
Which of the following defines a moderate level of alcohol intake per day for the average-sized man?
A) Up to 1 drink
B) Up to 2 drinks
C) Up to 3 drinks
D) Up to 5 drinks
 
B
 
363. 
3.
Which of the following CANNOT be used to make body proteins?
A) Glucose
B) Glycerol
C) Fatty acids
D) Amino acids
 
C
 
364. 
4.
What is the percentage of ethanol in 120-proof scotch whiskey?
A) 5
B) 30
C) 60
D) 95
 
C
 
365. 
5.
Which of the following accounts for the higher energy density of a fatty acid compared with the other energy-yielding nutrients?
A) Fatty acids have a lower percentage of hydrogen-carbon bonds
B) Fatty acids have a greater percentage of hydrogen-carbon bonds
C) Other energy-yielding nutrients have a lower percentage of oxygen-carbon bonds
D) Other energy-yielding nutrients undergo fewer metabolic reactions, thereby lowering the energy yield
 
B
 
366. 
6.
The Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in people with chronic alcohol abuse stems primarily from a deficiency of
A) folate.
B) thiamin.
C) antidiuretic hormone.
D) alcohol dehydrogenase.
 
B
 
367. 
7.
Which of the following is a feature of the metabolism of surplus dietary fat?
A) Excess fat is almost all stored
B) Excess fat promotes increased fat oxidation
C) Excess fat spares breakdown of body proteins
D) Conversion of excess fat to storage fat is inefficient
 
A
 
368. 
8.
Which of the following is characteristic of alcohol absorption?
A) It is slowed when the stomach is full of food
B) It is increased when high-fat snacks are eaten
C) It is increased when carbohydrate snacks are eaten
D) It is lower in women than in men of the same body weight
 
A
 
369. 
9.
Which of the following is a feature of low-carbohydrate diets?
A) Body glycogen stores are preserved
B) Ketosis is evident within the first 1-2 days
C) In the first few days, body fat loss exceeds water loss
D) Overall body fat losses are about the same as with other diets
 
D
 
370. 
10.
Which of the following reactions is an example of an anabolic reaction?
A) Pyruvate synthesis from glucose
B) Acetyl CoA synthesis from cholesterol
C) Carbon dioxide synthesis from citric acid
D) Cholesterol synthesis from acetyl CoA molecules
 
D
 
371. 
11.
Ketonemia is defined as an elevation of
A) ketones in the blood.
B) ketones in the urine.
C) alpha-ketoglutarate in the blood.
D) alpha-ketoglutarate in the urine.
 
A
 
372. 
12.
A person said to have acetone breath most likely has the condition known as
A) ketonemia.
B) feasting syndrome.
C) acetyl CoA toxicity.
D) carbohydrate overload.
 
A
 
373. 
13.
When protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, the excess amino acids are metabolized and the energy in the molecules is
A) stored as fat only.
B) excreted in the feces.
C) stored as amino acids only.
D) stored as glycogen and fat.
 
D
 
374. 
14.
What is acetaldehyde?
A) An intermediate in fatty acid synthesis
B) An intermediate in alcohol metabolism
C) The first product of fatty acid catabolism
D) The TCA compound that combines with acetyl CoA
 
B
 
375. 
15.
How does excess carbohydrate intake contribute to obesity?
A) It is efficiently converted to storage fat
B) It spares oxidation of body fat and dietary fat
C) It stimulates glucagon release, resulting in inhibition of fatty acid oxidation
D) It stimulates pancreatic lipase secretion, which results in higher dietary fat absorption
 
B
 
376. 
16.
Which of the following is a characteristic of ketosis?
A) It may lead to a lowering of blood pH
B) It leads to increased appetite in most individuals
C) It may be alleviated quickly by ingestion of some dietary fat
D) It is a necessary physiological adjustment for maximum weight loss
 
A
 
377. 
17.
In the adult body, food energy not stored as fat or glycogen is lost as
A) heat.
B) photons.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) electromagnetic radiation.
 
A
 
378. 
18.
Which of the following is NOT among the functions of the liver?
A) Synthesis of urea
B) Synthesis of glycogen
C) Production of red blood cells
D) Conversion of fructose to fatty acids
 
C
 
379. 
19.
Fatty acid oxidation results in the direct production of
A) ketones.
B) fructose.
C) pyruvate.
D) acetyl CoA.
 
D
 
380. 
20.
Excess alcohol intake leads to a reduction in the synthesis rate of
A) liver fat.
B) liver glucose.
C) ketone bodies.
D) acetyl CoA molecules.
 
B