CNA: Exam 4 Study Guide

Total Flash Cards » 115
 
1. 

Thoracic Lymph duct collects from what part of the body? Right Lymph Duct?

 

Thoracic: Left side and lower right (below chest). Right: Rt. side from chest up.

 
2. 

COPD & CAD

 

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease / Coronary Artery Disease

 
3. 

Hypertension Numbers? Prehypertension Numbers? Normal Numbers?

 

Hypertension: 140+/90+ Prehypertension: 120-139/80-89 Normal: -120/ -80

 
4. 

During a Myocardial Infarction... what is the BP usually? Pulse?

 

BP: Low / Pulse: weak or irregular

 
5. 

Pulmonary Edema is what?

 

Fluid in the lungs. Emergency!!!

 
6. 

What position is preferred for person's with CAD and pneumonia?

 

Semi-fowlers

 
7. 

Cardioversion is the same as ______

 

Defibrillation

 
8. 

to treat dysrhythmia, areas of heart sending abnormal rhythms are destroyed.... a process called_______

 

Ablation

 
9. 

COPD involves what 2 diseases?

 

Chronic Bronchitis and Emphysema

 
10. 

Soft tissues of the throat relax and close airway when sleeping

 

Obstructive Sleep Apnea

 
11. 

Brain doesn't send signals to the muscles to breathe when sleeping

 

Central Sleep Apnea

 
12. 

Most common complication of flu in older persons

 

Pneumonia

 
13. 

In pneumonia, Breathing and Pulse will appear to be ______

 

Breathing: rapid , shortness of breath / Pulse: rapid

 
14. 

Can an asymptomatic person with TB spread the disease? How long can a person possibly stay asymptomatic?

 

No / many years

 
15. 

Blood in sputum may be a sign of ____

 

TB

 
16. 

Apical pulse is where?

 

Chest

 
17. 

Pulse at wrist

 

Radial Pulse

 
18. 

Pulse at fold in arm

 

Brachial Pulse

 
19. 

Slow heart rate, less than 60/min, is called____

 

Bradycardia

 
20. 

difference between the apical pulse and the radial pulse is called the _______

 

Pulse deficit

 
21. 

Rapid heart rate, 100+/min, is called ____

 

Tachycardia

 
22. 

Vital Signs consist of _____(4)

 

BP, Temp, Pulse, Respiration

 
23. 

DUS stands for ______

 

Doppler Ultrasound Stethescope

 
24. 

Normal temperatures for: Oral, Rectal, Axillary, Tympanic Membrane, Temporal Artery

 

Oral: 89.6 / Rectal: 99.6 / Axillary: 97.6 / Tympanic: 98.6 / Temporal Artery: 99.6

 
25. 

Oral glass thermometers are left in place for how many minutes

 

2-3 minutes

 
26. 

For confused patients, what 2 thermometers are best?

 

Temporal or Tympanic

 
27. 

What position is used for a rectal thermometer? How far is the insertion? What color are they?

 

Sim's Position / 1/2 inch / Red

 
28. 

What pulse is taken during CPR and other emergencies?

 

Carotid Pulse

 
29. 

What pulse site is used for children and infants under 2 years

 

Apical Pulse

 
30. 

In general pulse rate decreases as we age... normal pulse rate for 12+ years is between _____

 

60-100

 
31. 

In order to measure the FORCE of pulse you use____

 

Your touch. Equipment doesn't measure this.

 
32. 

Apical pulses are taken for how long?

 

1 minute

 
33. 

What is used to check a pedal pulse? Why is a pedal pulse taken?

 

Doppler Ultrasound Stethoscope (DUS) / To check foot circulation

 
34. 

Respiration rate decreases as we age... Healthy adult respiration is between _____ /minute

 

12-20 breaths

 
35. 

Children respiratory rate and percieved abnormal respiration should be counted for how long?

 

1 minute

 
36. 

After menopause, women's BP tends to ____

 

Rise

 
37. 

In a state of shock, BP tends to be _______

 

seriously low

 
38. 

When lying down, BP tends to be _____. When standing suddenly or changing positions, it tends to be _________

 

Higher / Lower

 
39. 

Alcohol does what to BP

 

Raises it

 
40. 

Change in BP due to sudden change in position is called ______

 

Orthostatic Hypotension

 
41. 

Person's with bariatric needs may require this type of BP measuring device

 

Wrist Monitor

 
42. 

A person should rest how long before BP is taken? How long if a 2nd test is needed?

 

10-20 minutes / 30-60 seconds

 
43. 

Infants temperature should be taken how?

 

Rectally

 
44. 

Atelectasis is _________

 

Collapse of a portion of a lung

 
45. 

Rapid and deep respirations followed by 10-30 seconds of Apnea that occurs with nervous system disorders is called ____

 

Biot's Respirations

 
46. 

Gradual increase in rate and depth of respirations and then become shallow and slow; 10-20 seconds of Apnea may occur. Usually death is near. This is called

 

Cheyne-Stokes Respirations

 
47. 

Bluish color to the skin, lips, mucous membranes and nail beds

 

Cyanosis

 
48. 

Hemoptysis is ____

 

Blood in sputum

 
49. 

Difference between hypoxemia and hypoxia

 

Hypoxemia, is reduced amount of 02 in blood, Hypoxia is not enough O2 in the cells

 
50. 

Very deep an rapid respirations and a signal of diabetic coma.

 

Kussmaul Respirations

 
51. 

Breathing deeply and comfortably only when sitting up is called______ ,and this position is called ______

 

Orthopnea / Orthopneaic Position

 
52. 

When breathing stops

 

Respiratory Arrest

 
53. 

Slow, weak respirations of fewer that 12 per minute is called._____ . If it is only slow and not weak it is called ____

 

Respiratory Depression / Bradypnea

 
54. 

Tachypnea is how many respirations?

 

20+ / minute

 
55. 

SpO2 means ______

 

Saturation of Peripheral Oxygen

 
56. 

An open airway.... term meaning 'open'

 

Patent

 
57. 

measures the amount of oxygen concentration in the blood.

 

Pulse Oximetry

 
58. 

What is the normal range of pulse oximetry?

 

95-100%

 
59. 

Bright light, fake nails, nail polish and movements may adversely affect what test?

 

Pulse Oximetry

 
60. 

machine that measures that amount of air inhaled

 

Spirometer

 
61. 

Flow rate of O2 is in what units? Who sets the rate?(2) Low flow rates- humidified or not?

 

L/min. Nurse or Resp. Therapist / Low flow rates are not humidified

 
62. 

Do you give Oxygen? Can you set up oxygen? If no bubbling or water level is low, do you fill it?

 

No / Yes / No (tell nurse)

 
63. 

Should oxygen devices be tightly secured? If there are signs of hypoxia, should you turn oxygen up?

 

No, secure but not tight / No...tell the nurse at once

 
64. 

blood in the pleural space

 

hemothorax

 
65. 

the escape and collection of fluid in the pleural space

 

pleural effusion

 
66. 

air in the pleural space

 

pneumothorax

 
67. 

ET stands for _____, RT stands for ______

 

Endotracheal / Respiratory Therapist

 
68. 

Obturators should be where after they have inserted the tracheostomy tube?

 

within easy reach for reinsertion if necessary

 
69. 

A tracheostomy tube comes out, and hypoxia signs are present. Do you reinsert the tube?

 

No, call for the nurse

 
70. 

With a trach tube...shower or tub? Med-alert jewelry or no? Scarf or shirt that would cover the stoma when outside?

 

tub / Med-Alert Jewelry, yes / Yes

 
71. 

T/F Hypoxia is not enough oxygen in the blood?

 

False..... in the CELLS

 
72. 

trach care is done how often?

 

Daily or every 8-12 hours

 
73. 

Tracheostomy secureness shoult be how tight? when is too loose?

 

Fingertip, is right / whole finger is too loose

 
74. 

when providing trach care, what 3 things are done? Who does this?

 

Inner tube cleaned, stoma area cleaned, clean ties replace dirty ones (only removed after clean in place) / The Nurse

 
75. 

Before suctioning a person with an ET or Tracheostomy tube what must be done? Who does this?

 

hyperventilation of lungs using an Ambu bag / Nurse or RT

 
76. 

T/F.... Oxygen is treated like a drug

 

Yes, ....and you do not give drugs

 
77. 

Who does suctioning? How long is a suction cycle for an adult? Children? How long between cycles?

 

Nurses...you assist / 10-15 seconds/cycle (adult), 5 seconds/cycle (children) / 20-30 seconds between cycles

 
78. 

For mechanical ventilation, what type of tube is needed? (2)

 

ET or Trach

 
79. 

Mechanical Ventilation: 1 alarm means what? What do you do? Then what? Reset alarm?

 

Person is disconnected from machine / reconnect the tube / tell the nurse about all alarms / No, only nurses reset alarms

 
80. 

T/F.... you can assist a Dr. when he is inserting a chest tube

 

F..... nurse does this

 
81. 

Is saliva sputum? Explain

 

No....it comes from salivary glands, sputum comes from respiratory tract

 
82. 

Best time of the day for sputum collection? What should the person do first

 

Morning / Rinse mouth with water

 
83. 

in older persons postural drainage can assist in sputum cough up using gravity? Can a CNA do this?

 

No....nurses and RT

 
84. 

how much sputum is needed for a good sample?

 

1-2 teaspoons

 
85. 

life-threatening sensitivity to an antigen

 

anaphylaxis

 
86. 

SCA stands for ________

 

Sudden Cardiac Arrest

 
87. 

BLS stands for _______

 

Basic Life Support

 
88. 

RRT's include what health care professionals? What does it stand for?

 

Doctor, RT, or RN / Rapid Response Team

 
89. 

What is EMS? In a nursing home, who activates this?

 

Emergency Medical Services / A nurse

 
90. 

According the the AHA... what is the first thing in the Chain of Survival actions for adults

 

Recognizing cardiac arrest and activating EMS at once

 
91. 

Agonal breaths/breathing is a sign of what?

 

Sudden Cardiac Arrest

 
92. 

abnormal heart rhythm

 

ventricular fibrillation

 
93. 

When are rescue breaths given? I breath ever ___seconds for adults, every ____ for children. Check pulse every _____ minutes. If no pulse ___

 

When there IS a pulse but NO breathing / 5-6 seconds / 3-5 seconds / 2 minutes / begin CPR

 
94. 

During possible SCA....check pulse for ____seconds but not longer than ______ seconds

 

5 / 10

 
95. 

Chest compression rate should be ____ /minute

 

100

 
96. 

2 breaths are given after how many compressions? If two rescuers, how many compressions?

 

30 / 15

 
97. 

After 1 shock with a defibrillator, what should you do?

 

resume CPR at once for 5 cycles (30/2)

 
98. 

If a person faints, then should wait how long after they feel better before they get up? Should they stand or sit?

 

5 minutes / Sit

 
99. 

Hemiplegia is _____ Aphasia is _____

 

paralized on one side / unable to speak

 
100. 

What color is skin if heat is applied to long? Red or Pale?

 

Pale....blood vessels constrict.

 
101. 

What temperature is considered very hot? hot? warm? tepid? cool? cold?

 

Very Hot: 106+ / Hot: 98-106 / Warm: 93-98 / Tepid: 80-93 / Cool: 65-80 / Cold: 50-65

 
102. 

Who applies Very hot applications? How often should you check an application? What is the longest an application should be left on?

 

The Nurse / every 5 minutes / 15-20 minutes

 
103. 

Should a heating pad be place under a person or body part?

 

No....heat cannot escape

 
104. 

Hyperthermia is what temperature? Hypothermia is what temperature? What blanket is used for each to treat?

 

Hyper: 103+ use a Hypothermia blanket / Hypo: <95, use a hypertherma blanket

 
105. 

Incentive spirometry, Coughing and deep breathing prevent

 

Circulatory and Respiratory complications

 
106. 

TED hose should be removed every ___ hours for ___ minutes

 

8 hours for 30 minutes

 
107. 

When applying an elastic bandage start at the ____ part of the body and finish at the ____ part of the body. Check every ______

 

Distal / Proximal / hour

 
108. 

Digital removal of a fecal impaction is dangerous how?

 

Stimulation of Vagus nerve can slow heart rate

 
109. 

oil-retention enemas should be held in for how long?

 

30-60 minutes

 
110. 

The 5th Vital sign

 

Pain

 
111. 

What stage of REM and NREM occurs only once during a nights sleep? How many stages are in NREM? How many cycles occur in a 7-8 hour sleep?

 

NREM Stage 1 / 4 Stages / 4-6 cycles

 
112. 

Why are sleeping aids and alcohol bad for your sleep if they promote drowsiness and sleep?

 

They interfere with REM

 
113. 

Do TV, talking, bedtime snacks, and flexible bedtimes promote sleep?

 

Yes

 
114. 

Who protects a patients interests?

 

Ombudsman

 
115. 

During admission, who explains the person's rights to the person and family?

 

The nurse