Bio Retake Test 3

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1. 
What is the final result of mitosis?
A) Genetically identical 2n somatic cells
B) Genetically identical 2n gamete cells
C) Genetically identical 1n somatic cells
D) Genetically different 2n somatic cells
E) Both A and B are correct
 
A
 
2. 
Based on structures present in the figure above, this cell is in which substage of interphase?
A) G2 phase
B) G1 phase
C) G0 phase
D) S phase
 
A
 
3. 
At which of the numbered regions in the figure above would you expect to find cells at metaphase?
A) I and II
B) II only
C) III only
D) IV only
E) V only
 
C
 
4. 
A plant-derived protein known as colchicine can be used to poison cells by blocking the formation of the spindle. Which of the following would result if colchicine is added to a sample of cells in G2?
A) The chromosomes would segregate but in a disorderly pattern
B) The chromosomes would coil and shorten but have no spindle to which to attach
C) The cells would immediately die
D) The cells would be unable to begin M and stay in G2
 
B
 
5. 
What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I?
A) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, and homolgues separate in meiosis I
B) DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis, but not before meisis I
C) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, and homologues separate in meiosis II
D) Only meisis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information
 
A
 
6. 
If a cell has completed the first meiotic division and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an apporpriate description of its contents?
A) It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell
B) It has the same number of chromosomes but each of them has different alleles than another cell from the same meiosis
C) It is identical in content to another cell from the same meiosis
D) It has one-fourth the DNA and one-half the chromosomes as the originating cell
E) It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis
 
E
 
7. 
The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes away and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following?
A) Mitosis in her ovary
B) Telophase I of one meiotic event
C) Telophase II of one meiotic event
D) Either anaphase I or II
E) Metaphase I of one meiotic even
 
D
 
8. 
Genetic recombination takes place in which of the following processes?
A) Prophase II of meiosis
B) Alignment of tetrads in metaphase I
C) Random alignment of homologous chromosomes in meiosis I
D) Crossing over
 
D
 
9. 
You have isolated DNA from three different cell types of an organism, determined the relative DNA content for each type, and plotted the results on the graph shown above. Which choice below pair the correct cell with the DNA content of that cell?
A) I = Gamete, II = Zygote, III = Cell in Metaphase I of meiosis
B) Either A or B could be true; one cannot tell from DNA content alone
C) I = Cell at the end of Meiosis II, II = gamete, II = Zygote
D) I = Zygote, II = Cell in Prophase I of meiosis, III = Gamete
E) Either I or II represents the DNA content of a zygote, II = a somatic cell
 
D
 
10. 
Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of?
A) The random natur of the fertilization of ova by sperm
B) The random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II
C) The random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I, the random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm, the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II, and the relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes
D) The random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I
E) The relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes
 
D
 
11. 
A sexually reproducing pea plant has two unlinked genes, one for round pea shape (R) and one for tall plant height (T). Its genotype is Rrtt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?
A) tt
B) t
C) Rr
D) rt
E) Rrtt
 
D
 
12. 
Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has res, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red, axial flowers, The genes for flower color and location assort independently. Among the F2 offspring, what is the probability of plants with white axial flowers?
A) 1/16
B) 9/16
C) 1/8
D) 1/4
E) 3/16
 
E
 
13. 
Which of the following describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects?
A) Incomplete dominance
B) Polygenic inheritance
C) Pleiotropy
D) Multiple alleles
 
C
 
14. 
A man has extr digits (six fingers on each hand and six toes on each foot). His wife and their daughter have a normal number of digits. Having extra digits is a dominant trait. The couple's second child has extra digits. Wht is the probability that their next (third) child will have extra digits?
A) 1/8
B) 1/16
C) 3/4
D) 1/2
E) 9/16
 
D
 
15. 
A recessibe allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green color blindness in humans. A woman with normal vision whose father is color blind marries a color-blind male. The couple has a son. What is the probability that he is color blind?
A) 100%
B) 75%
C) 50%
D) 25%
 
C
 
16. 
If a woman with tupe AB blood marries a man with type O blood, which of the following blood types could their childre possibly have?
A) A and B
B) AB and O
C) A, B, and O
D) A, B, and AB
E) A, B, AB, and O
 
A
 
17. 
A homozygous tomato plant with red fruit and yellow flowers was crossed with a homozyous tomato plant with golden fruit and white flowers. The F1 all had red fruit and yellow flowers.
The following phenotypes were obtained in the F2:
Red fruit and yellow flowers - 41
Red fruit and white flowers - 7
Golden fruit and yellow flowers - 8
Golden fruit and white flowers - 44
A) 17.1
B) 35
C) 15
D) 17.6
E) 18.1
 
C
 
18. 
Use the pedigree below to determine the mode of inheritance for a genetically inheritied trait. Filled in symbols indicated an individual who is affected by the trait?
A) The pedigree shows a sex-linked dominant trait
B) The pedigree shows an autosomal dominant trait
C) One cannot tell the mode of inheritance from this pedigree
D) The pedigree shows an autosomal recessive trait
E) The pedigree shows a sex-linked recessive trait
 
D
 
19. 
How is natural selection related to sexual reproduction as opposed to asexual reproduction.
A) Sexual reproduction utilizes far less energy than asexual reproduction
B) Sexual reproduction results in many new gene combinations, some of which will lead to differential reproductive success
C) Sexual reproduction allows the greatest number of offspring to be produced
D) Sexual reproduction results in the most appropriate and healthiest balbance fo two sexes in the population
E) Sexual reproduction results in the greatest number of new mutatuions
 
B
 
20. 
Gene expression is ofter assayed by measuring the level of mRNA produced from a gene. If one is interested in knowing the amount of a final active gene product, a potential problem of this metod is that it ignores the possiblity of?
A) Transcriptional control
B) Chromatin condensation control
C) Alternative splicing
D) Translational control
 
D
 
21. 
In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base-pairing rules?
A) A = G
B) A = C
C) A + T = G + T
D) G = T
E A + G = C+ T
 
E
 
22. 
Bacterial and eukaryotic cells primarily control gnen expression at the level of transcription. If instead cells exerted control of gene expression primarily at the post-translation level, what would be different?
A) Genes would no longer be transcribed
B) Translation of mRNA into protein would not occur
C) Cells would expend significantly more energy
D) The ability to rapidly respond to environmental change would be reduced
 
C
 
23. 
DNA template strand 5'__________3'
DNA complementary strand 3'___________5'
Given the locally unwound double strand above, in which direction does the RNA polymerase move?
A) 3' -> 5' along the template strand
B) 3' -> 5' along the complementary strand
C) 5' -> 3' along the template strand
D) 5' -> 3' along the double-stranded DNA
E) 5' -> 3' along the complementary strand
 
A
 
24. 
A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5' CCG-ACG 3' (mRNA). The anticodon loop of the first tRNA that will complement this mRNA?
A) 5' GGC 3'
B) 3' GGC 5'
C) 5' UGC 3'
D) 5' ACG 3'
E) 3' UGC 5'
 
B
 
25. 
The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume wich of the following?
A) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism
B) All organisms have experienced convergent evolution
C) The same codons in different organisms translate into the different amino acids
D) Different organisms have different numbers of different types of amino acids
E) DNA was the first genetic material
 
A
 
26. 
A possible sequence of nubleotides in the templat strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence phe-leu-ile-val would be?
A) 3' AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA 5'
B) 3' AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA 5'
C) 5' AUG-CTG-CAG-TAT 3'
D) 3' AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA 5'
E) 5' TTG-CTA-CAG-TAG 3'
 
A
 
27. 
When plasmids are used to produce a desired protein, the?
A) Plasmids are inserted into the main bacterial chromosome
B) Plasmids multiply and produce the protein outside of the bacterium
C) Desired gene is inserted into the plasmid and the plasmid is taken up by the bacterium
D) Bacterial chromosome is genetically engineered and the plasmid is used to help the bacterium replicate
E) Bacterial genome and plasmid are inserted into the genome of the cell containing the desired gene (perhaps the cell of a plant or animal)
 
C
 
28. 
The reason for using Taq polymerase for PCR is that
A) Only minute amounts are needed for each cycle of PCR
B) It has regions that are complementary to primers
C) It binds more readily than other polymerases to primer
D) It is heat stable and can withstand the temperature changes of the cycler
E) All of these are correct
 
D
 
29. 
Which of the following modicication is least likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis?
A) increasing the length of the DNA fragment
B) neutralizing the negative charges within the DNA fragment
C) Decreasing the length of the DNA fragment
D) Altering the nuvleotide sequence of the DNA fragment
 
D
 
30. 
Which of the following tools of recombinat DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?
A) Restriction enzyme-analysis of RFLPs
B) Reverse transcriptase-production of cDNA from mRNA
C) DNA ligase-cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments
D) Electrophoriesis-separation of DNA fragments
E) DNA polymerase-polymerase chain reaction to amplify sections of DNA
 
C