|
1.
The monomers of
DNA and RNA are
a.
amino acids.
b.
monosaccharides.
c.
nucleotides.
d.
fatty acids.
e.
nucleic acids. |
|
c
|
| |
|
1.
DNA replication
a.
occurs through
the addition of nucleotides to the end of the DNA molecule.
b.
results in the
formation of four new DNA strands.
c.
produces two
daughter DNA molecules that are complementary to each other.
d.
uses each strand
of a DNA molecule as a template for the creation of a new strand.
e.
begins when two
DNA molecules join together to exchange segments. |
|
d |
| |
|
1.
If one strand of
DNA is CGGTAC, the corresponding strand would be
A)
GCCTAG.
B)
CGGTAC.
C)
GCCAUC.
D)
TAACGT.
E)
GCCAUG. |
|
e |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following enzymes catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand?
A)
helicase
B)
primase
C)
ligase
D)
single-stranded binding protein
E)
DNA polymerase |
|
e |
| |
|
1.
Why does a DNA
strand grow only in the 5' to 3' direction?
a.
because DNA
polymerases can only add nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing molecule
b.
because DNA
polymerases can only add nucleotides to the 5' end of the growing molecule
c.
because mRNA can
only read a DNA molecule in the 5' to 3' direction
d.
because the DNA
molecule only unwinds in the 5' to 3' direction
e.
because DNA
polymerase requires the addition of a starter nucleotide at the 5' end |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following options best depicts the flow of information when a gene directs the
synthesis of a cellular component?
a.
RNA → DNA →
RNA → protein
b.
DNA → RNA →
protein
c.
protein → RNA →
DNA
d.
DNA → amino acid → RNA →
protein
e.
DNA → tRNA →
mRNA → protein |
|
b |
| |
|
1.
Experiments have
demonstrated that the "words" of the genetic code (the units that
specify amino acids) are
a.
single
nucleotides.
b.
two-nucleotide sequences.
c.
three-nucleotide sequences.
d.
nucleotide
sequences of various lengths.
e.
enzymes. |
|
c |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following occurs when RNA polymerase attaches to the promoter DNA?
a.
elongation of the
growing RNA molecule
b.
termination of
the RNA molecule
c.
addition of
nucleotides to the DNA template
d.
initiation of a
new RNA molecule
e.
initiation of a
new polypeptide chain |
|
d |
| |
|
1.
Where do
transcription and translation occur in prokaryotic cells?
a.
on the plasma
membrane
b.
in the nucleus
c.
in the cytoplasm
d.
in chromatophores
e.
in the cell wall |
|
c |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following takes place during translation?
a.
the conversion of
genetic information from the language of nucleic acids to the language of
proteins
b.
the conversion of
genetic information from DNA nucleotides into RNA nucleotides
c.
the addition of
nucleotides to a DNA template
d.
the conversion of
genetic information from the language of proteins to the language of enzymes
e.
DNA replication |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
Consider the
following sentence: "The dog did not eat." Which of the following
variations of this sentence is most like a reading frame mutation?
a.
The dog dog did
not eat.
b.
The did dog not
eat.
c.
The dod idn ote
at.
d.
The did not eat.
e.
The dog did dog
did not eat. |
|
c |
| |
|
1.
A base
substitution mutation in a gene does not always result in a different protein.
Which of the following factors could account for this?
a.
the fact that the
mutation affects only the sequence of the protein's amino acids, so the protein
stays the same
b.
the double-ring structure of adenine and guanine
c.
a correcting
mechanism that is part of the mRNA molecule
d.
the fact that
such mutations are usually accompanied by a complementary deletion
e.
the fact that
some amino acids are specified from more than one codon |
|
e |
| |
|
1.
When DNA from two
sources is combined into one single piece of DNA, it is known as
A)
cloned DNA.
B)
recombinant DNA.
C)
a vector.
D)
a plasmid.
E)
a DNA library. |
|
b |
| |
|
1.
The production of
multiple identical copies of gene-sized pieces of DNA defines
A)
gene cloning.
B)
plasmid
transformation.
C)
clonal selection.
D)
tissue culturing.
E)
plasmolysis. |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
In the process of human gene cloning
using recombinant plasmids, the bacterial plasmid
A)
functions as a
vector.
B)
is the source of
the gene to be cloned.
C)
is cultured
inside the human cell, which contains the gene to be cloned.
D)
is used to insert
the human gene into the bacterial chromosome.
E)
comes from the
same organism as the gene of interest. |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
DNA ligase binds
A)
exons together.
B)
polymerase to the
promotor.
C)
nucleotides
together.
D)
introns together.
E)
an intron to an
exon. |
|
c
|
| |
|
1.
Restriction
enzymes
A)
edit proteins.
B)
cut DNA at
specific sites.
C)
stop
transcription.
D)
bind together
strands of DNA.
E)
bind RNA
fragments together. |
|
c |
| |
|
1.
Restriction
enzymes specifically recognize and cut short sequences of DNA called
A)
promoter
sequences.
B)
short terminal
repeats.
C)
sticky ends.
D)
DNA fragments.
E)
restriction
sites. |
|
e |
| |
|
1.
DNA fragments
that have matching sticky ends are joined by covalent bonds formed by the
action of
A)
DNA ligase.
B)
DNA polymerase.
C)
DNA helicase.
D)
covalentase.
E)
a restriction
enzyme. |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
A vaccine works
by
A)
inhibiting
bacterial replication.
B)
stimulating the
immune system.
C)
inhibiting viral
replication.
D)
preventing the
translation of mRNA.
E)
stimulating the
secretion of insulin. |
|
b |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following statements about DNA technology is false?
A)
DNA technology is
now used to mass-produce
human insulin.
B)
DNA technology is
now used to mass-produce
human growth hormone.
C)
DNA technology is
now used to create cells that can identify and kill cancer cells.
D)
DNA technology is
now used to produce vaccines that are harmless mutants of a pathogen.
E)
DNA technology is
now used to produce vaccines that use the smallpox virus but replace some of
the genes that
produce
immunity to smallpox with genes that produce immunity to other diseases. |
|
c |
| |
|
1.
A transgenic
animal is
A)
an animal that is
the first of its kind to bear a particular allele.
B)
an animal in
which a genetic defect has been corrected using recombinant DNA therapy.
C)
an animal
containing a gene from a third "parent," which may even be another
species.
D)
an animal
containing genes from both its parents.
E)
an animal
containing genes from three or more species. |
|
c |
| |
|
1.
In order for gene
therapy to be permanent,
A)
the defective
gene must first be removed from all somatic cells.
B)
the normal gene
must be added to the germ line cells.
C)
the defective
gene must undergo restriction enzyme analysis first.
D)
the normal gene
must first be treated with UV radiation to ensure noninfectivity.
E)
the normal gene
must be transferred to somatic cells that can continuously multiply. |
|
e |
| |
|
1.
Genetically
modifying ________ cells may directly affect future generations.
A)
intestinal
B)
basal
C)
somatic
D)
germ
E)
T |
|
d |
| |
|
1.
If you commit a
crime, you need to make sure that you do not leave even the smallest speck of
blood, hair, or other organic matter from your body. If you do, the DNA in this
material can be amplified by ________, subjected to genetic analysis, and used
to identify you as the perpetrator of the crime.
A)
ATP
B)
PCR
C)
blotting
D)
RFLP
E)
reverse
transcriptase |
|
b |
| |
|
1.
Gel
electrophoresis sorts DNA molecules on the basis of their
A)
nucleotide
sequence.
B)
solubility in
water.
C)
ability to bind
to mRNA.
D)
solubility in the
gel.
E)
size. |
|
e |
| |
|
1.
During the
process of electrophoresis, the ________ functions like a thick filter,
separating the samples according to their size.
A)
sample well
B)
sample mixture
C)
positively
charged electrode
D)
negatively
charged electrode
E)
gel |
|
e |
| |
|
1.
The core theme of
biology is
A)
taxonomy.
B)
genetics.
C)
ecology.
D)
evolution.
E)
metabolism. |
|
d |
| |
|
1.
Darwin found that
some of the species on the Galápagos islands resembled species of the South
American mainland
A)
less than they
resembled animals on ecologically similar but distant islands.
B)
more than they
resembled animals on ecologically similar but distant islands.
C)
less than they
resembled animals in Europe.
D)
less than they
resembled animals from Australia.
E)
very closely; in
most cases, the species from the mainland and the islands were identical. |
|
b |
| |
|
1.
Who developed a
theory of evolution almost identical to Darwin's?
A)
Lyell
B)
Wallace
C)
Aristotle
D)
Lamarck
E)
Mendel |
|
b |
| |
|
1.
During the 1950s,
a scientist named Lysenko tried to solve the food shortages in the Soviet Union
by breeding wheat that could grow in Siberia. He theorized that if individual
wheat plants were exposed to cold, they would develop additional cold tolerance
and pass it to their offspring. Based on the ideas of artificial and natural
selection, do you think this project worked as planned?
A)
Yes, the wheat
probably evolved better cold tolerance over time through inheritance of
acquired characteristics.
B)
No, because
Lysenko took his wheat seeds straight to Siberia instead of exposing them
incrementally to cold.
C)
No, because there
was no process of selection based on inherited traits. Lysenko assumed that
exposure could induce a plant to develop additional cold tolerance and that
this tolerance would be passed to the plant's offspring.
D)
No, because
Lysenko used wheat varieties that had lost their cold tolerance as a result of
disuse.
E)
Yes, because this
is generally the method used by plant breeders to develop new crops. |
|
c |
| |
|
1.
Broccoli, cabbages, and brussels sprouts
all descend from the same wild mustard and can still interbreed. These
varieties were produced by
A)
speciation.
B)
artificial
selection.
C)
natural
selection.
D)
genetic drift.
E)
inheritance of
acquired characteristics. |
|
b |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following best expresses the concept of natural selection?
A)
differential
reproductive success based on inherited characteristics
B)
inheritance of
acquired characteristics
C)
change in
response to need
D)
a process of
constant improvement, leading eventually to perfection
E)
survival of the
fittest |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
A dog breeder
wishes to develop a breed that does not bark. She starts with a diverse mixture
of dogs. Generation after generation, she allows only the quietest dogs to
breed. After 30 years of work she has a new breed of dog with interesting
traits, but on average, the dogs still bark at about the same rate as other dog
breeds. Which of the following would be a logical explanation for her failure?
A)
There is no
variation for the trait (barking).
B)
The tendency to
bark is not a heritable trait.
C)
The selection was
artificial, not natural, so it did not produce evolutionary change.
D)
There was no
selection (differential reproductive success) related to barking behavior.
E)
She did not breed
enough of the frequently barking dogs to obtain the desired result. |
|
b |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following statements regarding natural selection is false?
A)
Natural selection
is more of an editing process than a creative mechanism.
B)
Natural selection
depends on the local environment at the current time.
C)
Natural selection
starts with the creation of new alleles that are directed toward improving an
organism's fitness.
D)
Natural selection
and evolutionary change can occur in a short period of time (a few
generations).
E)
Natural selection
can be observed working in organisms alive today. |
|
c |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following disciplines has found evidence for evolution based on the native
distributions (locations) of living species?
A)
molecular biology
B)
comparative
anatomy
C)
biogeography
D)
paleontology
E)
embryology |
|
c |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following represents a pair of homologous structures?
A)
the wing of a bat
and the scales of a fish
B)
the wing of a bat
and the flipper of a whale
C)
the antennae of
an insect and the eyes of a bird
D)
the feathers of a
bird and the wing membrane of a bat
E)
the wing of a bat
and the wing of a butterfly |
|
b |
| |
|
1.
A population is
A)
a group of
individuals of the same species living in the same place at the same time.
B)
all individuals
of a species, regardless of location or time period in which they live.
C)
a group of
individuals of different species living in the same place at the same time.
D)
a group of
individuals of a species plus all of the other species with which they
interact.
E)
a group of
species that share a common characteristic. |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
Microevolution,
or evolution at its smallest scale, occurs when
A)
n individual's
traits change in response to environmental factors.
B)
a geographic area
is altered by erosion, volcanic eruptions, or other geological forces.
C)
a community of
organisms changes due to the extinction of several dominant species.
D)
a new species
arises from an existing species.
E)
a population's allele
frequencies change over a span of generations. |
|
e |
| |
|
1.
The ultimate
source of all new alleles is
A)
mutation in
parent cells (asexual organisms) or in cells that produce gametes (sexual
organisms).
B)
any form of
mutation, regardless of the cell type.
C)
chromosomal
duplication.
D)
genetic drift.
E)
natural
selection. |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following terms represents the frequency of heterozygotes in a population that
is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A)
p
B)
q
C)
2pq
D) q2
E) p2 |
|
c |
| |
|
1.
Imagine that you
are studying a very large population of moths that is isolated from gene flow.
A single gene controls wing color. Half of the moths have white-spotted wings (genotype WW or Ww)
and half of the moths have plain brown wings (ww). There are no
new mutations, individuals mate randomly, and there is no natural selection on
wing color. How will p, the frequency of the dominant allele, change
over time?
A)
p will increase; the dominant allele will eventually
take over and become most common in the population.
B)
p will neither increase nor decrease; it will remain
more or less constant under the conditions described.
C)
p will decrease because of genetic drift.
D)
p will increase initially, then decrease until the W
allele vanishes from the population.
E)
p will fluctuate rapidly and randomly because of
genetic drift. |
|
b |
| |
|
1.
Genetic drift
resulting from a disaster that drastically reduces population size is called
A)
natural
selection.
B)
gene flow.
C)
the bottleneck
effect.
D)
nonrandom mating.
E)
the founder
effect. |
|
c |
| |
|
1.
Thirty people are
selected for a long-term
mission to colonize a planet many light years away from Earth. The mission is
successful and the population rapidly grows to several hundred individuals.
However, certain genetic diseases are unusually common in this group, and their
gene pool is quite different from that of the Earth population they have left
behind. Which of the following phenomena has left its mark on this population?
A)
founder effect
B)
bottleneck effect
C)
gene flow
D)
high rates of
mutation
E)
natural selection |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
Genetic
differences between populations tend to be reduced by
A)
gene flow.
B)
mutation.
C)
the founder
effect.
D)
the bottleneck
effect.
E)
natural
selection. |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following will tend to produce adaptive changes in populations?
A)
genetic drift
B)
gene flow
C)
mutation
D)
natural selection
E)
the founder
effect |
|
d |
| |
|
1.
A rabbit
population consists of animals that are either very dark on top or very light
on top. The color pattern is not related to sex. No rabbit shows intermediate
coloration (medium darkness). This pattern might result from
A)
disruptive
selection.
B)
directional
selection.
C)
stabilizing
selection.
D)
sexual selection.
E)
random mating. |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
Mate-attracting features such as the bright plumage of a
male peacock result from
A)
intersexual
selection.
B)
intrasexual
selection.
C)
disruptive
selection.
D)
directional
selection.
E)
stabilizing
selection. |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
A woman
struggling with a bacterial illness is prescribed a month's supply of a potent
antibiotic. She takes the antibiotic for about two weeks and feels much better.
Should she save the remaining two-week supply, or should she continue taking the drug?
a. She should save the drug for later,
because if she keeps taking it the bacteria will evolve resistance.
b. She should save the drug for use the
next time the illness strikes.
c. She should save the drug because antibiotics
are in short supply and
she may need it to defend herself against a bioterrorism incident.
d. She should continue taking the drug
because otherwise the
bacteria
will evolve by genetic drift.
e. She should continue taking the drug
until her immune system can
completely eliminate the infection. Otherwise the remaining bacteria
in her system may recover, and they will probably be resistant. |
|
e |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following would a biologist describe as microevolution?
A)
the formation of
new species
B)
the extinction of
species
C)
dramatic
biological changes, such as the origin of flight, within a taxon
D)
the generation of
biodiversity
E)
a change in
allele frequencies within the gene pool of a population |
|
e |
| |
|
1.
A biological
species is defined as a group of organisms that
A)
are physically
similar.
B)
are genetically
similar.
C)
share a recent
common ancestor.
D)
live together in
a location and carry out identical ecological roles.
E)
have the
potential to interbreed in nature and produce fertile offspring. |
|
e |
| |
|
1.
The biological
species concept is
A)
applicable to all
forms of life, past and present.
B)
applicable to all
present life forms, but not to fossil organisms whose reproductive behavior
cannot be observed.
C)
easy to apply to
all present sexually reproducing organisms, but harder to apply to asexual
organisms and fossils.
D)
difficult to put
into practice even for present sexual organisms, and useless for asexual
organisms and fossils.
E)
based on DNA, so
it applies to all forms of life from which a DNA sample can be collected. |
|
d |
| |
|
1.
Which provides
the most general and correct description of the idea of a reproductive
barrier?
A)
any feature (of
geography, behavior, or morphology) that keeps one species from mating with
another
B)
a biological
difference between two species that prevents them from successfully
interbreeding
C)
a geographic
barrier that separates two species and prevents gene flow between them
D)
a difference in
reproductive biology between two species that makes hybrid individuals less
fertile
E)
a difference in
behavior that keeps two species from interbreeding |
|
b |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following types of reproductive barriers separates two species of sea
cucumbers, whose sperm and eggs often bump into each other but do not cross-fertilize because of incompatible proteins on their
surfaces?
A)
temporal
isolation
B)
habitat isolation
C)
behavioral
isolation
D)
mechanical
isolation
E)
gametic isolation |
|
e |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of species that could
interbreed except that one mates at dusk and the other at dawn?
A)
temporal
isolation
B)
habitat isolation
C)
behavioral
isolation
D)
mechanical
isolation
E)
gametic isolation |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following types of reproductive barriers separates two flowering plant species
that could interbreed except that one has a deep flower tube and is pollinated
by bumblebees, whereas the other has a short, narrow flower tube and is
pollinated by honeybees?
A)
temporal
isolation
B)
habitat isolation
C)
behavioral
isolation
D)
mechanical
isolation
E)
gametic isolation |
|
d |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of moth species that
could interbreed except that the females' mating pheromones are not attractive
to the males of the other species?
A)
temporal
isolation
B)
habitat isolation
C)
behavioral
isolation
D)
mechanical
isolation
E)
gametic isolation |
|
c |
| |
|
1.
Which of the
following types of reproductive barriers separates a pair of insect species
that could interbreed except that one mates on goldenrod flowers and the other
on autumn daisies that both blossom at the same time?
A)
temporal
isolation
B)
habitat isolation
C)
behavioral
isolation
D)
mechanical
isolation
E)
gametic isolation |
|
b |
| |
|
1.
Two species that
sometimes mate and produce vigorous but sterile offspring are separated by
A)
mechanical
isolation.
B)
gametic
isolation.
C)
reduced hybrid
fertility.
D)
reduced hybrid
viability.
E)
hybrid breakdown. |
|
c |
| |
|
1.
The likelihood of
allopatric speciation increases when a splinter population is ________ and
________ the broader range of the species.
A)
small . . .
isolated from
B)
large . . .
nearby
C)
large . . .
isolated from
D)
small . . .
nearby
E)
large . . .
continuous with |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
Speciation
without geographic isolation is called ________ speciation.
A)
sympatric
B)
allopatric
C)
incomplete
D)
diversifying
E)
punctuated |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
Organisms that
possess more than two complete sets of chromosomes are said to be
A)
haploid.
B)
polyploid.
C)
diploid.
D)
hybrids.
E)
allopatric. |
|
b |
| |
|
1.
Sympatric
speciation commonly occurs through ________ in plants, but is more likely to
occur through ________ in animals.
A)
polyploidy . . .
habitat differentiation and sexual selection
B)
habitat
differentiation and sexual selection . . . polyploidy
C)
asexual
reproduction . . . chromosome duplications
D)
polyploidy . . .
geographic barriers
E)
self-pollination . . . polyploidy and other genetic
mechanisms |
|
a |
| |
|
1.
In a hybrid zone, ________ can occur if
the reproductive barrier between two species is weak, as seen among cichlids in
the murky waters of modern Lake Victoria.
A)
reinforcement
B)
fusion
C)
allopatric
speciation
D)
sympatric
speciation
E)
reproductive
isolation |
|
b |
| |
